Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: Wolf13

I fail to see how the fairness doctrine would get by the First Amendment. Makes no sense at all. I know it was the law of the land before, but it makes no sense at all.


4 posted on 10/31/2008 8:39:11 AM PDT by TexanToTheCore
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 1 | View Replies ]


To: TexanToTheCore

The Fairness Doctrine existed until the 1980s and only ended during the Reagan years. The Federal Government justifies it by saying that they, the Federal Government, hold the airwaves “in trust” for the American People and can thus set terms for their usage.
If passed by Congress, the Supreme Court will uphold it.


5 posted on 10/31/2008 9:21:09 AM PDT by Little Ray (Joe the Plumber. He's our only hope... God help him.)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 4 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson