I fail to see how the fairness doctrine would get by the First Amendment. Makes no sense at all. I know it was the law of the land before, but it makes no sense at all.
The Fairness Doctrine existed until the 1980s and only ended during the Reagan years. The Federal Government justifies it by saying that they, the Federal Government, hold the airwaves “in trust” for the American People and can thus set terms for their usage.
If passed by Congress, the Supreme Court will uphold it.