Posted on 04/26/2011 7:19:51 AM PDT by 1st I.D Vet
When a law passes the Senate saying a foreclosing bank must show proof its the actual owner of the debt (note) what happens when the banks corrupt the head of the banking commission?
This is not a Monarchy - unless we allow it. Get this out there.
StopForeclosureFraud.com
Msfraud.org
Livinglies.wordpress.com
Don't flame me for posting links to other blogs.
-Its bad enough that all 50 state attorney generals are seeking action against all banks.
- that the Federal Reserve gave the banks 60 days to get their schtuff straight
- that appellate courts across the country are overturning rulings which normal people would call judicial corruption.
-
Pay your payment and don’t worry about it.
always works for me
“-Its bad enough that all 50 state attorney generals are seeking action against all banks.
- that the Federal Reserve gave the banks 60 days to get their schtuff straight
- that appellate courts across the country are overturning rulings which normal people would call judicial corruption.”
In spite of the fact that your current lender cannot prove he owns your note, and despite the fact that you have fraudulent documents and that your loan was probably paid off by TARP funds already, never mind, pay your mortgage sucker.
What do you think of folks who know they owe money but avoid payment on technical grounds? Isn't that a fraud also, at least in a moral sense?
They are ever hopeful for some “come to government” among populist conservatives, lol.
IMO, when the foreclosure is contested due to inability to show whom holds the actual note, the court should determine by way of testimony if the mortgage is up to date regarding payments. If not, the property should be placed in a conservatorship under a receiver or trustee until the paper is made whole. In other words, if you don’t pay the mtg, you go. The receiver can rent the home to cover maintenance costs, taxes, and security till the matter is resolved and charge a set fee for this service.
I’ve never missed a mtg payment and don’t intend to.
The problem being, if they don’t have the correct standing now to foreclose (should I not pay), then they legally can’t have the ability to give clear title when and if I sell after its paid off or I move.
THAT is the crux of this whole thing.
Its got nothing to do with paying or not, but the fact that property law is being thrown out the window when the bank is asked to show its really the person who has the legal right.
Imagine, you write a check to your mom to pay for the milk. Mom makes a copy, or two actually, and one gets filed, lost or someone else takes it to the bank to be cashed. Except, now someone else has the legal right to cash it and not your mom.
Issues? Only when the person who claims they are owed the money has no legal authority or paper trail to show they bought it, or own it or have the rights to it.
Fraud. Plain and simple. regardless of who is paying and who isn’t. Two different things here...
and yes, failing to pay your mortgage is reason to get the boot. :-)
I was addressing those who are in foreclosure proceedings, not those who are current. IMO, I don’t believe because someone can show some glitch in some obsure paperwork, they should be living in a place scott free of any payments. Placing the property in a receivership would remove them from the premises, keep a cash flow going to maintain the property, ensure the taxes are paid, the place is somewhat secured from vandalism and does not become a tent city.
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