The Second Amendment is clear that the right to bear arms shall not be infringed. It does not “cease to exist” because certain politicians iterate desired structures/infringements upon it. Nor do such strictures by default indicate that cities have no need of the Second Amendment, or that the said politician thereby waives any and all need for the Second Amendment.
So how is the 2A in effect when a president clearly violates it by stripping citizens of their 2A protected weapons in cities?
Next tell the class, if he was not talking about cities, does that mean he was talking about stripping guns in larger populated villages but leaving them in cities with massively more people?
So if not a city, what was he saying exactly?