I have a question I would like to ask someone. I am not trying to offend anyone here, just a curious Baptist. Why is Mary always referred to as the Virgin Mary? Mary was a virgin when she conceived and gave birth to Jesus. However, after Jesus was born, she and Joseph had children. Therefore she was no longer a virgin. Right?
Incorrect. Nowhere in Scripture can it be found that Mary and Joseph had children or engaged in sexual relations. It is a common misconception by those who reject the Blessed Virgin Marys' perpetual virginity; which is supported by the Church Fathers and Protestants like Luther, Calvin and Zwingli, amongst others, that Mary had children besides Jesus. Scripture does not even mention Joseph after Christ is found at the age of twelve teaching in the temple. Scripture makes no mention of Mary remarrying. Jesus is always referred to as
the Son of Mary, never
a Son of Mary. If any of the Apostles were blood brothers of Jesus then Jesus, in accordance with Jewish custom, would not have had to entrust Her care to John as He died on the cross. Since we know that Jesus was Marys' firstborn, a term which does not mean there were others to follow, then those who some claim were His brothers would have been violating Jewish custom by giving an older brother advice and trying to restrain him.
Linguistic literalists who incorrectly interpret brother, sister, brethren, until, firstborn and who do not understand Aramaic add to Scripture by saying Mary had other children. If you would like more information along with additional Biblical proof that Jesus was Marys' only child, please let me know.