Posted on 08/09/2002 11:40:46 AM PDT by gubamyster
So they not only want to saddle parents with an ever-expanding brood, but they want it supported by a single income, which is no longer commonly possible in modern society.
That's what renders it morally acceptable. In NFP, every conjugal act retains both its procreative and unitive aspect.
For thinking human beings, this removes the necessity for abortion as fail-safe insurance against the failure of the implements or chemicals with which one divorced sex from its procreative nature or engaged in sex with a person to whom one really did not wish to give themselves in toto.
Primarily because women work and have ratcheted down the man's ability to bring home wealth even as they've ruined the workplace and invited in Uncle Sam to settle their every dispute and even -- or slant, rather -- their every playing field.
I agree, but the situation unfortunately isn't likely to change anytime soon.
They, and my wife, are my life.
You call them "nonexistent," since nobody has used calendar rhythm since the mid-1960's. ST or Billings NFP is not the "rhythm method". It's extremely reliable if used correctly.
By the way, my wife and I have used NFP for 8 years. Zero surprises, which is one less than we had using ABC. Your joke just doesn't reflect reality, at least not the reality I've experienced.
But I agree with you about anal sex being VERY unhealthy. All moral implacation aside, the digetive track is full of bacteria that are more than happy to take up residence inside the urogenital track. In the ER where I go to school they see more and more bladder and kidney infections because of this.
As to what is ok or not ok between a man and women inside of the marrige, Heb. 13:4 tells us that the marrige bed is undefiled. I think one could make a case that whatever goes on between a married man and woman sexualy is fine.
However, my question was because of your reply to drjimmy:
Granted, the couple may strive to avoid having sex during fertile periods but -- if their conjugal relations are free of contraceptive implements or abortifacient chemicals -- there is always the potential for life which will be welcomed by the couple who recognize conception as a matter of God's will making their co-creative ability fruitful.
It appears that you differentiate between rythm (natural) methods and unnatural methods, based on the fact that natural methods hold a chance for conception. However so do unnatural methods. But then you speak of abstinance. But those who practice natural methods aren't abstinant.
Aren't those who practice natural methods equally guilty of being not abstinant? I'm just wondering exactly what makes them better. It can't be that they have a possibility of conception because so do those who use condoms. So, what is the difference?
Again, no flame intended. I'm genuinely curious and you seem well informed on this topic so I respect your opinion.
It was Karl Marx, not Jesus of Nazareth, who said that the ends justified the means. Christian moral teaching is that one must pursue morally right goals by morally right means.
Merely pointing out that the "end aim" is the same does not establish the moral equivalence of ABC and NFP anymore than pointing out that robbing a liquor store and investing in the stock market both have the same "end aim," increasing one's wealth.
Heb 13:4 says "Let the marriage bed be undefiled". It's an admonition. That one can be admonished to "let it be undefiled" implies that it can be defiled.
The Greek actually doesn't appear to have a verb, so it's ambiguous. It's something like: "Marriage held in honor among all, and the bed undefiled: fornicators and adulterers God will judge." I think concluding from that that anything goes between married couples is a jump of huge proportions.
I'm not exactly taking that position, but merely pointing out that one could possibly make a case.
I wish I would have taken greek when I had the chance.
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