Wrong again. 9th and 10th Amendments. If a power is not explicitly listed as beloning to the Feds, it belongs to the states or the people.
For you to be right there'd have to be a "The people do not have a right to privacy" clause in the Constitution.
Not so. Your misinterpretation of those amendments puts the Feds in charge of ajudication between which implied rights trumps which, the "people's" or the "states". When you get into that game, the Feds can make up all the "implied rights" the want, "balance" them the way they want, and thus they all become useless.
What will happen then is that "compelling state interest" will cause them to say that the state's rights triumph in "hate crimes" and "affirmative action" et al....., but that the "people's rights" trump any effort to regulate destructive sexual misbehavior....or whatever else is in vouge with the elites at that moment.
All that misintepretation does is give all power to the Feds. What the ammendment actaully means is that there are other areas that the FEDS can't trample the people's rights, and there are other areas the FEDS can't trample the statet's rights.
In other words, maybe the FEDS can't violate your implied "right to privacy", but the feds have no business preventing the implied right of a state to make its own laws in regard to sexual misconduct in the name of protecting an individuals "right to privacy". The only places where the Fed can step in against a state are in the areas where the Constitution guarantees an INDIVIDUAL something- like due process.
IN all other areas THE STATES have implied rights against the FEDS, and the individual PEOPLE have implied rights against the FEDS, but the Feds should never, never, never, be allowed, as they are doing, to use the implied rights of one group against the "implied rights" of the other group to destroy the implied and stated rights of BOTH.
Ok. Now cite for me the Texas law on record denying its citizens a right to privacy.