Nothing blindly at all...Romans 11 says something is going to happen in the future with the Jews, AFTER He is done with us Gentiles...So we know that hasn't happened yet...
There's far, far too much scripture in both Testaments that allude to the reign of Jesus Christ on earth to deny it...
You guys claim that scripture doesn't mean what it says but yet you can't tell us what it does mean (with any definition that's reasonable or believable, or lines up with any other scripture or history)...
Actually, it doesn't say that at all. Some people interpret the phrase until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in to be a reference to the millennium or some such era, but the text does not plainly or literally say that. Some people interpret this to speak of some time in the future, but, again, that is purely an interpretation based partly on some preconceived ideas of what ought to happen to Jews in the future.
There's far, far too much scripture in both Testaments that allude to the reign of Jesus Christ on earth to deny it...
There is a lot of symbolic language that some folks falsely interpret literally to refer to Jesus reigning in body on the earth. Problem is there is absolutely nothing in the NT to support that idea. Jesus and His apostles were not literalists, in the modern sense. They interpreted most of the OT prophecies about Messiah symbolically to refer to the present reign of Christ over the nations. Cf. 1 Cor. 15:23-25.
You guys claim that scripture doesn't mean what it says ...
And you guys claim it says what it doesn't plainly or literally say. You have to drink the futurist dispensational kool aid to get to where you guys end up.