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The “Necessity” of Being Catholic (Ecumenical Caucus)
The CHN Newsletters ^ | James Akin

Posted on 10/25/2009 9:52:48 AM PDT by narses

One of the most controversial papal documents ever released was the bull Unam Sanctam, issued in 1302 by Pope Boniface VIII. Today the most controversial part of the bull is the following infallible pronouncement: "Now, therefore, we declare, say, define, and pronounce that for every human creature it Is altogether necessary for salvation to be subject to the authority of the Roman pontiff."

This doctrine is extraordinarily controversial. Some Catholic extremists claim (contrary to further Church teaching, including a further infallible definition) that this means everyone who is not a full fledged, professing Catholic is damned. Non Catholics find the claim offensive, sectarian, and anti Christian in sentiment.

Most Catholics who are aware of the definition find it embarrassing, especially in today's ecumenical age, and many try to ignore or dismiss it, though even liberal Catholic theologians admit it is a genuine doctrinal definition and must in some sense be true.

Its truth was reinforced by Vatican II, which stated: "This holy Council ... [b]asing itself on Scripture and Tradition ... teaches that the Church, a pilgrim now on earth, is necessary for salvation.... [Christ] himself explicitly asserted the necessity of faith and baptism (cf. Mark 16:16, John 3:5), and thereby affirmed at the same time the necessity of the Church which men enter through baptism as through a door. Hence they could not be saved who, knowing the Catholic Church was founded as necessary by God through Christ, would refuse either to enter it or to remain in it" (Lumen Gentium 14).

Many modems explain this doctrine in a way that robs it of its content. In the 1950 encyclical Humani Generis, Pope Pius XII, who admitted the possibility of salvation for non Catholics, lamented that some Catholic theologians were "reducs an exclusivist view of salvation, this teaching does not mean that anyone who is not a full fledged Catholic is damned. As further Church teaching has made clear, including a further doctrinal definition, it is entirely possible for a person to be saved without being a professing Catholic. Formally belonging to the Church and formally being subject to the Roman Pontiff are normative rather than absolute necessities,

An absolute necessity is a necessity which holds in all cases with no exceptions. A normative necessity is usually required, though there are exceptions. An example of normative necessity in everyday American life is the practice of driving on the right hand side of the road. This is normally required, but there are exceptions, such as emergency situations. For example, if a small child darts out from behind parked cars, it may be necessary (and legally permitted) to swerve into the left hand lane to avoid hitting him. Thus the necessity of driving on the right hand side of the road is a normative rather than an absolute necessity.

Whether it is a normative or an absolute necessity to be united to the Catholic Church depends on what kind of unity with the Church one has in mind, because there are different ways of being associated with the Catholic Church.

A person who has been baptized or received into the Church is fully and formally a Catholic. Vatican II states: "Fully incorporated into the society of the Church are those who, possessing the Spirit of Christ, accept all the means of salvation given to the Church together with her entire organization, and who by the bonds constituted by the profession of faith, the sacraments, ecclesiastical government, and communion are joined in the visible structure of the Church of Christ, who rules her through the Supreme Pontiff and the bishops" (Lumen Gentium 14, Catechism of the Catholic Church 837).

But it is also possible to be “associated" with or "partially incorporated" into the Catholic Church without being a fully and formally incorporated into it. Vatican II states: "The Church knows that she is joined in many ways to the baptized who are honored by the name of Christian, but do not profess the Catholic faith in its entirety or have not preserved unity or communion under the successor of Peter" (Lumen Gentium 15). Those "who believe in Christ and have been properly baptized are put in a certain, although imperfect, communion with the Catholic Church" (Unitatis Redintegratio 3; CCC 838).

Those who have not been baptized are also put in an imperfect communion with the Church, even if they do not realize it, if they possess the virtues of faith, hope, and charity. Pope Plus XII explains that the "juridical bonds [of the Church] in themselves far surpass those of any other human society, however exalted; and yet another principle of union must be added to them in those three virtues, Christian faith, hope, and charity, which link us so closely to each other and to God.... [I]f the bonds of faith and hope, which bind us to our Redeemer in his Mystical Body are weighty and important, those of charity are certainly no less so.... Charity ... more than any other virtue binds us closely to Christ" (Mystici Corporis 70, 73).

Understanding this distinction between perfect and imperfect communion with the Church is essential to understanding the necessity of being a Catholic. It is an absolute necessity no exceptions at all to be joined to the Church in some manner, at least through the virtues of faith, hope, and charity. However, it is only normatively necessary to be fully incorporated into or in perfect communion with the Catholic Church. There are exceptions to that requirement, as the Council of Trent taught (see below), though it is still a normative necessary.

In our discussion below, the word "necessary" will mean "normatively necessary," not "absolutely necessary."

When it comes to the question of being a Catholic, that is both a necessity of precept and a necessity of means. It is a necessity of precept because God commands it, for "the Catholic Church was founded as necessary by God through Christ," Lumen Gentium 14 (CCC 846). It is a necessity of means because the Catholic Church is the sacrament of salvation for mankind, containing all the means of grace. "As sacrament, the Church is Christ's instrument. 'She is taken up by him also as the instrument for the salvation of all, ''the universal sacrament of salvation, 'by which Christ is' at once manifesting and actualizing the mystery of God's love for men... (CCC 776, citing Vatican II's Lumen Gentium 9:2, 48:2, and Gaudiam et Spes 45: 1).

The Offense of the Gospel

To many this teaching sounds extremely offensive, sectarian, and anti Christian. But is it really? While non-Catholic Christians balk at the claim one must be a Catholic to be saved, many do not balk when it is said that one be a Christian to be saved. Evangelicals and Fundamentalists are well known for claiming precisely this. Many say it is an absolute necessity no exceptions allowed and are critical of Catholics for saying some non-Christians may make it into heaven. They claim that in allowing this possibility the Church has compromised the gospel.

(For a scriptural rebuttal to this, see Acts 10:34 35, in which Peter declares that anyone who fears God and works righteousness is acceptable to the Lord. See also Acts 17:23, in which Paul says some Greeks worshipped the true God in ignorance. And see Rom. 2:13 16, in which Paul states that some gentiles who do not have the law of Moses meaning non Christian gentiles, since they do have the law of Moses may be excused by their consciences and declared righteous on the day of judgment.)

Vatican II stated: “Those who, through no fault of their own, do not know the Gospel of Christ, but who nevertheless seek God with a sincere heart, and, moved by grace, try in their actions to do his will as they know it through the dictates of their conscience – those too may achieve eternal salvation. Nor shall divine providence deny the assistance necessary for salvation to those who, without any fault of theirs, have not yet arrived at an explicit knowledge of God, and who, not without grace, strive to lead a good life . . . . But very often, deceived by the Evil One, men have become vain in their reasoning, having exchanged the truth of God for a lie and served the world rather than the Creator (c.f Rom. 1:21 and 25). Or else, living and dying in this world without God, they are exposed to ultimate despair. Hence, to procure the glory of God and the salvation of all these, the Church, mindful of the Lord’s commands, ‘preach the Gospel to every creature’ (Mark 16:16) takes zealous care to foster the missions” Lumen Gentium 16).

We would cite the works of any number of popes prior to Vatican II to show this (for example, Pius IX’s allocution, Singulari Quadem, given the day after he defined the Immaculate Conception in 1854, or his 1863 encyclical Quanto Conficiamur Moerore, or Plus XII's 1943 encyclical Mystici Corporis), but to make short work of the matter, let us look at an infallible definition from the Council of Trent, whose teachings were formulated in one of the most bitterly polemical and least ecumenical periods in history, and which to radical traditionalists is an absolutely unimpeachable source.

Trent on Desire for Baptism

Canon four of Trent's "Canons on the Sacraments in General" states, "If anyone shall say that the sacraments of the New Law are not necessary for salvation but are superfluous, and that although all are not necessary for every individual, without them or without the desire of them ... men obtain from God the grace of justification, let him be anathema [excommunicated]." This is an infallible statement because anathemas pronounced by ecumenical councils are recognized as infallibly defining the doctrine under discussion.

Trent teaches that although not all the sacraments are necessary for salvation, the sacraments in general are necessary. Without them or the desire of them men cannot obtain the grace of justification, but with them or the desire of them men can be justified. The sacrament through which we initially receive justification is baptism. But since the canon teaches that we can be justified with the desire of the sacraments rather than the sacraments themselves, we can be justified with the desire for baptism rather than baptism itself.

This is confirmed in chapter four of Trent's Decree on Justification. This chapter defines justification as "a translation from that state in which man is born a child of the first Adam to the state of grace and of the 'adoption of the sons' of God through the second Adam, Jesus Christ, our Savior." Justification thus includes the state of grace (salvation). The chapter then states that "this translation, after the promulgation of the gospel, cannot be effected except through the laver of regeneration or a desire for it, as it is written: Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God' [John 3:5]. " Justification, and thus the state of grace, can be effected through the desire for baptism (for scriptural examples of baptism of desire, see Acts 10:44 48, also Luke 23:42 43).

Only actual baptism makes one a formal member of the Church; baptism of desire does not do so. Since justification can be received by desire for baptism, as Trent states, justification and thus received without formal membership in the Church. The desire for baptism is sufficient.

Implicit Desire

Later Catholic teaching has clarified the nature of this desire and shown it can be either explicit or implicit. One has explicit desire for baptism if he consciously desires and resolves to be baptized (as with catechumens and others). One has an implicit desire if he would resolve to be baptized if he knew the truth about it.

How does implicit desire work? Consider the following analogy: Suppose there is a person who is sick and needs a shot of penicillin to make him better. He tells his physician, "Doc, you've got to give me something to help me get well!" The doctor looks at his chart and says, "Oh, what you want is penicillin. That's the right drug for you." In this case the man had an explicit desire for a drug to make him better whatever that drug might be and the appropriate one was penicillin. He thus had an implicit desire for penicillin even if he had not heard of it before. Thus the doctor said: "What you want is penicillin." This shows that it is possible to want something without knowing what it Is.

A person who has a desire to be saved and come to the truth, regardless of what that truth turns out to be, has an implicit desire for Catholicism and for the Catholic Church, because that is where truth and salvation are obtained. By resolving to pursue salvation and truth, he resolves to pursue the Catholic Church, even though he does not know that is what he is seeking. He thus implicitly longs to be a Catholic by explicitly longing and resolving to seek salvation and truth.

Papal and conciliar writings in the last hundred years have clarified that those who are consciously non Catholic in their theology may still have an overriding implicit desire for the truth and hence for Catholicism. Pope Plus XII stated that concerning some of "those who do not belong to the visible Body of the Catholic Church ... by an unconscious desire and longing they have a certain relationship with the Mystical Body of the Redeemer" (Mystici Corporis 103).

How does this work? Consider our example of the sick man who needs penicillin. Suppose that he thinks that a sulfa drug will cure him and he explicitly desires it. So he tells the doctor, "Doc, I'm real sick, and you've got to give me that sulfa drug to make me better." But the doctor notices on his chart that he has an allergy to sulfa drugs, and says, "No, you don't want that; what you really want is penicillin." In this case the person's primary desire is to get well; he has simply mistaken what will bring that about. Since his primary desire to be well, he implicitly desires whatever will cause that to happen. He thus implicitly desires the correct drug and will explicitly desire that drug as soon as he realizes the sulfa would not work.

As papal and conciliar writings have indicated, the same thing is possible in religion. If a person's primary desire is for salvation and truth then he implicitly desires Catholicism even if he is consciously mistaken about what will bring him salvation and truth. He might be a member of some other church, yet desire salvation and truth so much that he would instantly become a Catholic if he knew the truth concerning it. In this case, his primary desire would be for salvation and truth wherever that might be found rather than his primary desire being membership in a non Catholic church.

However, the situation could be reversed. It is possible for a person to have a stronger desire not to be a Catholic than to come to the truth. This would be the case when people resist evidence for the truth of Catholicism out of a desire to remain non Catholic. In this case their primary desire would not be for the truth but for remaining a non-Catholic. Thus their ignorance of the truth would not be innocent (because they desired something else more than the truth), and it would constitute mortal sin.

Even though some radical traditionalists are disobedient to the papal and conciliar documents which teach the possibility of implicit desire sufficing for salvation, the Church has still taught for centuries that formal membership in the Church is not an absolute necessity for salvation. This was the point made by Trent when it spoke of desire for baptism bringing justification. The issue of whether desire for baptism saves and the issue of whether that desire can be explicit or implicit are two separate subjects which radical traditionalists often confuse. If we keep them separate, it is extremely clear from the Church's historic documents that formal membership in the Church is not necessary for salvation.

Justification and Salvation

To avoid this, some radical traditionalists have tried to drive a wedge between justification and salvation, arguing that while desire for baptism might justify one, it would not save one if one died without baptism. But this is shown to be false by numerous passages in Trent.

In the same chapter that it states that desire for baptism Justifies, Trent defines Justification as "a translation ... to the state of grace and of the adoption of the sons of God" (Decree on Justification 4). Since whoever is in a state of grace and adopted by God is In a state of salvation, desire for baptism saves. If one dies in the state of grace, one goes to heaven and receives eternal life.

As Trent also states: "Justification ... is not merely remission of sins, but also the sanctification and renewal of the interior man through the voluntary reception of the grace and gifts, whereby an unrighteous man becomes a righteous man, and from being an enemy [of God] becomes a friend, that he may be 'an heir according to the hope of life everlasting' [Titus 3:7]" (Decree on Justification 7). Thus desire for baptism brings justification and justification makes one an heir of life everlasting. If one dies in a state of justification, one will inherit eternal life. Period. This question of whether formal membership is necessary for salvation is thus definitively settled by Trent. It is not. Informal membership, the kind had by one with desire for baptism, suffices.

This was also the teaching of Thomas Aquinas. He stated that those who have no desire for baptism "cannot obtain salvation, since neither sacramentally nor mentally are they incorporated in Christ, through whom alone can salvation be obtained. Secondly, the sacrament of baptism may be wanting to anyone in reality but not in desire: for instance, when a man wishes to be baptized, but by some ill chance he is forestalled by death before receiving baptism. And such a man can obtain salvation without being actually baptized, on account of his desire for baptism, which desire is the outcome of 'faith that worketh by charity' [Gal. 5:6], whereby God, whose power is not tied to the visible sacraments, sanctifies man inwardly. Hence Ambrose says of Valentinian, who died while yet a catechumen: 'I lost him whom I was to regenerate; but he did not lose the grace he prayed for... (Summa Theologiae 111:68:2, citing Ambrose, Sympathy at the Death of Valentinian [A.D. 392]).

The question of whether desire for baptism needs to be explicit or implicit is a separate issue which was not raised by Trent, but which has been dealt with repeatedly by popes and councils since that time. Still, Trent alone shows that the statement in Unam Sanctam teaches a normative necessity for formal membership, not an absolute one. Those who desire but do not have baptism are not formally members of the Church, yet they are linked to the Church by their desire and can be saved.

What is absolutely necessary for salvation is a salvific link to the body of Christ, not full incorporation into it. To use the terms Catholic theology has classically used, one can be a member of the Church by desire (in voto) rather than in actuality (in actu).

In A.D. 400, Augustine said, "When we speak of within and without in relation to the Church, it is the position of the heart that we must consider, not that of the body ... All who are within in heart are saved in the unity of the ark" (Baptism 5:28:39).

And in the thirteenth century, Aquinas stated a person can obtain salvation if they are "sacramentally [or] mentally. . . incorporated in Christ, through whom alone can salvation be obtained," and that "a man can obtain salvation without being actually baptized, on account of his desire for baptism, which desire is the outcome of 'faith that worketh by charity' [Gal. 5:6], whereby God, whose power is not tied to the visible sacraments, sanctifies man inwardly" (ST 111:68:2).

Private Judgment?

What the radical traditionalists have forgotten is that they are not the interpreters of previous papal statements; the Magisterium is, and their personal interpretations may not go against the authoritative teaching of the current Magisterium.

The idea that they can by private conscience interpret centuries old papal decrees puts them in the same position as Protestants, interpreting centuries old biblical documents. The radical traditionalist simply has a larger "Bible," but the principle is the same: private interpretation rules! This completely defeats the purpose of having a Magisterium, which is to provide a contemporary source that can identify, clarify, and explain previous authoritative statements, whether from the Bible, Apostolic Tradition, or itself

Much of the current flap over Feeneyism could be avoided if conservative Catholics would remind themselves of the fact that it is the Magisterium, not them and their private judgment, which is the interpreter of previous Magisterial statements,

The Necessity of Evangelism

The same is true of those who misuse papal and conciliar statements on the other side, privately interpreting them in a way contrary to what they explicitly state that all religions are equal, that every religion leads one to God, and that there is no need for evangelism. The Church teaches the exact opposite!

While elements of truth may be found in other religions (for example, the truth that there is a supernatural world), elements of truth do not make equality in truth.

In fact, it can be the presence of elements of truth which make a counterfeit believable and lead one away from God. A lie is not credible if it bears no resemblance to reality, as illustrated by the serpent's lie to Eve, which most definitely contained elements of truth Adam and Eve did become "as God, knowing good and evil" (Gen. 3:5, 22) but it was the believability of the serpent's lie that led Adam and Eve away from God.

So though it is possible for a person to be led toward God by elements of truth that are found in a false religion, this does nothing to diminish the need for evangelism.

Vatican II may teach that it is possible for "Those who, through no fault of their own, do not know the Gospel of Christ or his Church" to receive salvation, but it immediately follows it up by stating that, despite that fact, "very often, deceived by the Evil One, men have become vain in their reasonings, have exchanged the truth of God for a lie and served the world rather than the Creator (cf. Rom. 1:21 and 25). Or else, living and dying in this world without God, they are exposed to ultimate despair. Hence, to procure the glory of God and the salvation of all these, the Church, mindful of the Lord’s command, 'preach the Gospel to every creature' (Mark 16:15) takes zealous care to foster the missions" (Lumen Gentium 16).

And Pope Pius XII stated concerning "those who do not belong to the visible Body of the Catholic Church ... we ask each and every one of them to correspond to the interior movements of grace, and to seek to withdraw from that state in which they cannot be sure of their salvation. For even though by an unconscious desire and longing they have a certain relationship with the Mystical Body of the Redeemer, they still remain deprived of those many heavenly gifts and helps which can only be enjoyed in he Catholic Church. Therefore may they enter into Catholic unity and, joined with us in the one, organic Body of Jesus Christ, may they together with us run on to the one Head in the society of glorious love" (Mystici Corporis 103).

These quotes show the Church's insistence on people's need to receive evangelization to hear the good news but most fundamentally evangelism is necessary because Christ calls us to dispel all ignorance concerning him and the means of salvation he has established (including the Church), for Christ commands, "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you" (Matt. 28:19 20). We are to dispel all ignorance, including innocent ignorance, for we are to "Go into all the world and preach the gospel to the whole creation" (Mark 16:15).

Those who represent, even through silence, the Magisterium as not requiring and stressing the urgent need for world wide evangelism are distorting the teaching of the magisterium as much as those who represent it as saying absolutely no one who is not formally a Catholic can be saved.

(For a look at what the early Church Fathers believed, and how they supported both the necessity of being Catholic and the possibility of salvation for non Catholics in some circumstances, see "The Fathers Know Best: Who Can Be Saved? ", This Rock, Nov. 94.)


TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; Ecumenism; Ministry/Outreach
KEYWORDS: catholic
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To: Mr Rogers; annalex; kosta50

“However, the writer of Hebrews doesn’t encourage the idea that the Eucharist is a sacrifice, requiring a human priest. For one thing, it is repeatedly pointed out that the sacrifice of Jesus is PAST, and that “he did this once for all”. And it also points out that Jesus is the one acting as Priest, not any human. He offers himself - he is not offered by a man.”

Mr. R, the very earliest of the Fathers are quite uniform in their commentary and instruction that the Eucharist is a continuing and necessary “once for all” sacrifice. Indeed, they condemn those who deny that the Eucharist is not the very body and blood of Christ. The Eucharist celebrated in Orthodox and Latin and Oriental Orthodox Churches IS the Last Supper. I suppose the easiest way to explain it is to say that it exists off any mundane time line. At the Divine Liturgy distinctions between heaven and earth vanish.


201 posted on 11/04/2009 4:59:22 PM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Mr Rogers

“elder” is a poor translation for “presbyteros” simply because age is not a requirement for the priestly office. Apostle John, for example, was a teenager yet the command “do this in memorial of me” was directed at him as well. The root of “presbyteros” is the same as the quizzical “presbeia” and if we were to translate “presbyteros” today into English we probably could use “leader”. However, we already have a direct borrow from Greek and we do not need to translate “presbyteros” at all. “Priest” is a contraction from “presbyteros” that went through centuries of the English hideous spelling and pronunciation grinder.

That “bishop” and “priest” were used interchangeably in the early church I have no dispute. First, bishop even today is a subspecies of priest. Second, in a small local church a bishop may not require to delegate his duty as homilist and eucharistic minister to anyone.

It is also true that Christ is the only priest ontologically speaking, and the sacrifice He is offering is He Himself. But Christ did command others to “do it in memorial of [Him]”. So it is the same sacrifice of the hill of golgotha that the priest makes availablel to us at Mass. Compare similar delegation done by Christ to absolve sins in John 20.


202 posted on 11/04/2009 5:12:23 PM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: Kolokotronis; annalex; kosta50

I understand your point of view. However, scripture takes precedence over church fathers, and scripture is quite clear - it was a past event, done once for all.

In remembrance? Yes.

A proclamation? Yes.

An actual sacrifice of Jesus? No.

I understand the timeline argument, except that isn’t the way the God-breathed words of scripture describe it. When it says, “But when Christ had offered [past tense] for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down [past tense] at the right hand of God, waiting from that time [present tense] until his enemies should be made [future tense] a footstool for his feet. For by a single offering [not single sacrifice, even, but single offering] he has perfected [past tense] for all time those who are being sanctified.”, I take it to mean what it says.

It may be the Greek has more subtlety of meaning than comes through in an English translation. I’ll be glad to learn as needed.

Now, is your soul imperiled by believing it is “the very body and blood of Christ”? Not that I know of...the thief on the cross had very imperfect theology, I suspect, but he went to be with Jesus in Paradise.

Is mine for not believing? Maybe...I’m not sure how strongly the Orthodox would condemn me, and the Catholics used to, but now say it is forgivable. I believe God judges our heart, although if we build badly, then our works will be destroyed and we will enter heaven with empty hands.

But I cannot teach what I believe scripture contradicts, nor would I ask you to change your beliefs on my say so. You can and have read the scriptures, how you interpret them is between you & God, and perhaps your Church.


203 posted on 11/04/2009 7:34:40 PM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: Kolokotronis; annalex; kosta50

Justin Martyr Dialogue with Trypho, 117

“Accordingly, God, anticipating all the sacrifices which we offer through this name, and which Jesus the Christ enjoined us to offer, i.e., in the Eucharist of the bread and the cup, and which are presented by Christians in all places throughout the world, bears witness that they are well-pleasing to Him...”

This certainly sounds like the Eucharist is a sacrifice of Jesus, doesn’t it? But a few sentences later he writes, “Now, that prayers and giving of thanks, when offered by worthy men, are the only perfect and well-pleasing sacrifices to God, I also admit. For such alone Christians have undertaken to offer, and in the remembrance effected by their solid and liquid food, whereby the suffering of the Son of God which He endured is brought to mind, whose name the high priests of your nation and your teachers have caused to be profaned and blasphemed over all the earth.”

Hmmm... but this sounds more like the Eucharist (Thanksgiving?) is a sacrifice of praise offered in remembrance effected by their solid and liquid food. In that sense, it is more certainly a Holy Sacrifice.

There is a discussion of how the early church fathers viewed the Eucharist here:

http://www.ccel.org/s/schaff/history/2_ch05.htm

See Sections 68 & 69. HISTORY of the CHRISTIAN CHURCH, Chapter 5 Philip Schaff

Here is a taste:

1. The Eucharist as a Sacrament.

The Didache of the Apostles contains eucharistic prayers, but no theory of the eucharist. Ignatius speaks of this sacrament in two passages, only by way of allusion, but in very strong, mystical terms, calling it the flesh of our crucified and risen Lord Jesus Christ, and the consecrated bread a medicine of immortality and an antidote of spiritual death.412 This view, closely connected with his high-churchly tendency in general, no doubt involves belief in the real presence...

...The same may be said of Justin Martyr, when he compares the descent of Christ into the consecrated elements to his incarnation for our redemption. 413

Irenaeus says repeatedly, in combating the Gnostic Docetism,414 that broad and wine in the sacrament become, by the presence of the Word of God, and by the power of the Holy Spirit, the body and blood of Christ and that the receiving of there strengthens soul and body (the germ of the resurrection body) unto eternal life. Yet this would hardly warrant our ascribing either transubstantiation or consubstantiation to Irenaeus. For in another place he calls the bread and wine, after consecration, “antitypes,” implying the continued distinction of their substance from the body and blood of Christ.415...The bread and wine represent and exhibit the body and blood of Christ as the archetype, and correspond to them, as a copy to the original. In exactly the same sense it is said in Heb. 9:24—comp. 8:5—that the earthly sanctuary is the antitype, that is the copy, of the heavenly archetype. Other Greek fathers also, down to the fifth century, and especially the author of the Apostolical Constitutions, call the consecrated elements “antitypes” (sometimes, like Theodoretus, “types”) of the body and blood of Christ.417

A different view, approaching nearer the Calvinistic or Reformed, we meet with among the African fathers. Tertullian makes the words of institution: Hoc est corpus meum, equivalent to: figura corporis mei, to prove, in opposition to Marcion’s docetism, the reality of the body of Jesus—a mere phantom being capable of no emblematic representation418 This involves, at all events, an essential distinction between the consecrated elements and the body and blood of Christ in the Supper. Yet Tertullian must not be understood as teaching a merely symbolical presence of Christ; for in other places he speaks, according to his general realistic turn, in almost materialistic language of an eating of the body of Christ, and extends the participation even to the body of the receiver.419 Cyprian likewise appears to favor a symbolical interpretation of the words of institution, yet not so clearly...

...The Alexandrians are here, as usual, decidedly spiritualistic. Clement twice expressly calls the wine a symbol or an allegory of the blood of Christ, and says, that the communicant receives not the physical, but the spiritual blood, the life, of Christ; as, indeed, the blood is the life of the body. Origen distinguishes still more definitely the earthly elements from the heavenly bread of life, and makes it the whole design of the supper to feed the soul with the divine word...

2. The Eucharist as a Sacrifice.

This point is very important in relation to the doctrine, and still more important in relation to the cultus and life, of the ancient church. The Lord’s Supper was universally regarded not only as a sacrament, but also as a sacrifice,422 the true and eternal sacrifice of the new covenant, superseding all the provisional and typical sacrifices of the old; taking the place particularly of the passover, or the feast of the typical redemption from Egypt. This eucharistic sacrifice, however, the ante-Nicene fathers conceived not as an unbloody repetition of the atoning sacrifice of Christ on the cross, but simply as a commemoration and renewed appropriation of that atonement, and, above all, a thank-offering of the whole church for all the favors of God in creation and redemption. Hence the current name itself—eucharist; which denoted in the first place the prayer of thanksgiving, but afterwards the whole rite...

...Down to the twelfth and thirteenth centuries the eucharistic elements were presented as a thank-offering by the members of the congregation themselves, and the remnants went to the clergy and he poor. In these gifts the people yielded themselves as a priestly race and a living thank-offering to God, to whom they owed all the blessings alike of providence and of grace. In later times the priest alone offered the sacrifice. But even the Roman Missal retains a recollection of the ancient custom in the plural form, “We offer,” and in the sentence: “All you, both brethren and sisters, pray that my sacrifice and your sacrifice, which is equally yours as well as mine, may be meat for the Lord.”

This subjective offering of the whole congregation on the ground of the objective atoning sacrifice of Christ is the real centre of the ancient Christian worship, and particularly of the communion. It thus differed both from the later Catholic mass, which has changed the thank-offering into a sin-offering, the congregational offering into a priest offering; and from the common Protestant cultus, which, in opposition to the Roman mass, has almost entirely banished the idea of sacrifice from the celebration of the Lord’s Supper, except in the customary offerings for the poor.”


204 posted on 11/04/2009 8:16:41 PM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: annalex

I think elder is understood to mean spiritual maturity.


205 posted on 11/04/2009 8:22:47 PM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: annalex; Mr Rogers; Kolokotronis; MarkBsnr
The Church is the True Israel, yes.

How can that which was grafted become the main vine? The graft either becomes incorporated into the vine or kills it and takes over.

Both “presbyteros”, priest and “episcopos”, bishop occur in the New Testament in numerous places...But more important is the question not of terminology but of function...The foundational verse for Christian priesthood is "This is my body, which is given for you. Do this for a commemoration of me" (Luke 22:19)...This establishes Christian ministerial priesthood: men consecrated to offer the sacrifice of Christ to their flock.

With all due respect, Alex, that is pure nonsense. I don't even want to go into this, because it would be tangential the topic, but suffice it to say that Chrstian priesthood evolved.

The Greek word for priest, Alex, is ἱερεύς (hierus), and you know that. One way or another, the word appears in the NT 30 times. It is a title for the one who offers sacrifices (the one who was to burn incense, as per Luke 1:9), and the priest's office or priesthood, is known as ἱερατεία (hierateia).

The difference is that the New Testament writers associated the terms priest(hood) with Jewish priest(hood), and did not think of their Apostles, and later of their elders (seniores in Latin translations, i.e. seniors) as being a "continuation" of Aaronic priesthood.

The ealriest Christians *and that certainly includes the Apostles) were still Jews, and in Judaism the priesthood is associated only with the Temple in Jerusalem and was an inherited tribal brithright and not a temporal appointment.

Clearly, then, no ordinary Jew, unless he was a Levi, could pretend to be a priest, and as far as I know, none of the 13 was a Levi. But anyone could offer thanks. That doesn't make one a priest!

Thus, offering thanks (as rabbis do at Seder) is not to be confused with offering sacrifice, or confusing rabbis with priests.

The fusion of the Christian presbyters with priestly fucntions of offering an actual sacrifice is a later development in the Church and not part of the pre-Jamnia Church.

Early Christians, being Jews, were not offering sacrifices, as that would have been contrary to their Jewish religious beliefs, and probably sufficient reason to be stoned to death.

That's why they call the Eucharist the "breaking of the bread" and do not speak of it as a "sacrifice" anywhere in the New Testament.

Of course, as the manuscript dates get closer and closer to the second century, so do New Testament concepts begin to change and attain their more familiar derived Christian meaning. That's why it is only in 1 Pet 2:5 that we see introduction of the "spiritual priesthood" and "spiritual sacrifice" (how convenient).

As for prebyteros not meaning "elder", you know you are not telling thew truth, Alex, because you know Greek (as well as Kolo, by his own admission). You know, then, that presbys means elderly and that the one who is presbys is older then the rest. Therefore, the Latin translation of presbyteros as senior is spot on!

As for episkopos not meaning "senior" you are right. Epi simply means "over" and skopos means "watchmen" — therefore, an "over-seer," or a Latin (literal) equivalent "super-visor" (from vision), one who is put in charge to make sure all tings are done right, a manager, one charged with overseeing things, a senior member in a work group.

Neither term means a "priest" directly or indirectly, and does not imply priestly duties. Priesthood was limited to the Temple in Jerusalem. Having a clear contextual picture of the environment in which the early church operated is crucial to unbderstahding how things evolved, Alex. Sometimes, the reality does not match the official truth or the myth that was either created or took hold on its own.

The early Christians attended service in synagogues (until they were thrown out of them, most probably following Jamnia's rejection of Christianity as a Jewish sect, at the end of the first century). You don't think they were making Eucharistic sacrifices in the synagogues, do you!?!

Paul never talks about making Eucharistic sacrifices. Why do you think that is, Alex? Neither does Mark, Matthew or John.

Christianity evolved. It's not something that just happened. The Church on day one in 33 AD would not have been the Catholic Church as we know it, theologically, ecclesiastically or ritually. Neither would its elders be the kind of hierarchy we see today. It's apples and oranges.

206 posted on 11/04/2009 9:25:47 PM PST by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: annalex; Mr Rogers
To show continuity from the geographical Israel to the Catholic Church, the true Israel.

Either Jesus had a hidden agenda and could not give it out (it would be blasphemy) or this is something the Church made up, as part of the deliberate 'transformation' of Jewish Christianity into Pauline Christianity, Alex.

Reading the Gospels, Jesus is unequivocal about the purpose of why and for whom he was sent, and what ethnic limitations his mission entailed.

207 posted on 11/04/2009 10:24:59 PM PST by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: annalex; Kolokotronis; Mr Rogers; MarkBsnr
I was simply reacting to some sweeping statements made earlier, to the effect that no hint at the institution of papacy can be found in patristic literature.

The institution of papacy as understood by the Latin Church was unknown to the Church in the 5th century as evidenced by Council texts prior at that time, texts that are not disputed by Latin translations.

In short: papal primacy of honor and shared primacy of privilege with the Ecumenical Patriarch is a product of episcoapal consent of the Church based on the dignity of the location of the Roman Senate.

To an occasional reader, the location of the Roman senate may seem trivial, but it is far from that. The whole Roman state was based on two elements: the senate and the people of Rome (hence the very name of the Roman state, Senatus Populusque Romanus).

No biblical prerogative was cites as authority of elevating the Bishop of Rome above other bishops in honor, but the location of the Senate and the primal dignity of Old Rome is.

Most of the Latin claim to papal supremacy comes from what is now know as False or Pseudo-Isidorean Decretals, a collection of 9th century Frankish forgeries, used as 'genuine' documents giving the popes the authority they sought.

208 posted on 11/04/2009 10:37:10 PM PST by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: Kolokotronis; Mr Rogers; annalex
Mr. R, the very earliest of the Fathers are quite uniform in their commentary and instruction that the Eucharist is a continuing and necessary “once for all” sacrifice. Indeed, they condemn those who deny that the Eucharist is not the very body and blood of Christ

Kolo, the proper context of this must be sought in the story of Exodus and the role played by the Paschal lamb. It is a conflation with the story of the Yom Kippur goat, and some strange and unusual (cultist) practices.

What was salvific about the Paschal lamb is that its blood marked the Jewish homes, leading the Spirit of God (understood in Judaism as the power of God) to spare or bypass their households, and in that sense, the blood of the lamb "saved" the Jews. Never mind the naive notion that God needed a marker..it was a one time event. No one in commemoration of the Passover kills lambs and places its bloody mark over their doors!

The lamb is eaten, as part of the commemorative remembrance of the event, which has no salvific effect. Nothing in the Seder implies that the sins are taken away by eating it. The Passover lamb was not slaughtered to take away the sins but to get its blood to mark the homes so the wrath of God would not befall the Hebrews, but only the Egyptians.

Also, nothing in the act of eating of the lamb implicitly imparts eternal life on anyone.

The idea of an animal taking away the sins is associated with the goat of Yom Kippur. By laying one's hands on the goat's head, your sins are believed to be transferred onto the goat, which is then either killed (and thus "takes" away your sins) or, more commonly, allowed to run away (with your sins).

The "strange customs" part is the cultist drinking of the blood (strictly forbidden in Judaism) and eating of the flesh (likewise not allowed)! The NT even mentions the disgust of the Jews upon hearing that eating Jesus' flesh will give them eternal life... In fact one of the bad raps of early Christians was that they worship a dead man on a tree, eat his flesh and drink his blood, i.e. a mixture of necrophilia and cannibalism, otherwise known to cause a specific disease known as kuru, which has been practiced throughout ages in many societies.

The conflation of the stories and the cultist flavor was possible because, remember, the NT was written for the pagan Greeks who were not turned off by blood, and in Greek, who knew nothing of the Jewish law, customs or the Old Testament God and would therefore be much more open to such teachings.

209 posted on 11/04/2009 11:35:23 PM PST by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: Mr Rogers; Kolokotronis; kosta50

Thank you for the irenic tone.

I don’t think there is anything in the Greek that does not come through in the transaltions, other than the neologistic “elder”. If the English language evolves one day and begins to call our preists elders, I would be fine with that. The question is, does the priest/elder offer the sacrifice that once happened at the hill of Golgotha? The scripture says, “do it” and Christ commanded it, and St. Paul in 1 Cor. 11 says “For as often as you shall eat this bread, and drink the chalice, you shall shew the death of the Lord, until he come”. So I think the answer scripturally is yes.

It also says that not “discerning the body” is a damnable sin.


210 posted on 11/05/2009 12:41:29 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: kosta50
The Greek word for priest, Alex, is ἱερεύς (hierus), and you know that

That is for Hebrew priests, who are in your colorful language, "killed and taken over". Our priests are presbyters.

211 posted on 11/05/2009 12:44:10 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: kosta50

“Kolo, the proper context of this must be sought in the story of Exodus and the role played by the Paschal lamb. It is a conflation with the story of the Yom Kippur goat, and some strange and unusual (cultist) practices.”

I know the history, Kosta. :)

“What was salvific about the Paschal lamb is that its blood marked the Jewish homes, leading the Spirit of God (understood in Judaism as the power of God) to spare or bypass their households, and in that sense, the blood of the lamb “saved” the Jews. Never mind the naive notion that God needed a marker..it was a one time event. No one in commemoration of the Passover kills lambs and places its bloody mark over their doors!”

We are not Jews, Kosta.

“The conflation of the stories and the cultist flavor was possible because, remember, the NT was written for the pagan Greeks who were not turned off by blood, and in Greek, who knew nothing of the Jewish law, customs or the Old Testament God and would therefore be much more open to such teachings.”

I know, Kosta. We are a lucky people.


212 posted on 11/05/2009 3:59:01 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: annalex; kosta50
"That is for Hebrew priests, who are in your colorful language, "killed and taken over". Our priests are presbyters."

So far as I know, today and for the past 2000 years anyway, the word for priest in Greek (other than παπας) is ἱερεύς, with small spelling variations over the centuries.

Πρεσβευτερος, I think, means either an old man or a representative, though we do call the wife of a priest a πρεσβευτερα. Certainly in English, though, we call priests Presbyters.

213 posted on 11/05/2009 4:11:15 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: annalex; Kolokotronis; kosta50

“The question is, does the priest/elder offer the sacrifice that once happened at the hill of Golgotha? The scripture says, “do it” and Christ commanded it,”

Umm, you are mixing apples and oranges. When the scripture says ‘do it’, it means partake in the Eucharist. It does not and never says or implies that it is a sacrifice of Jesus, and specifically states that the sacrifice of Jesus was a once for all event in the past.

There is not a single verse anywhere in scripture that says we are to regularly offer Jesus in sacrifice, and no where in the NT are any believers designated priests, save in the universal sense offering a sacrifice of praise or good deeds. Furthermore, the scripture specifically teaches that no sacrifice remains, which is why we need no priests:

“And every [Jewish] priest stands daily at his service, offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God, waiting from that time until his enemies should be made a footstool for his feet. For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are being sanctified.

And the Holy Spirit also bears witness to us; for after saying, “This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, declares the Lord: I will put my laws on their hearts, and write them on their minds,” then he adds, “I will remember their sins and their lawless deeds no more.”

Where there is forgiveness of these, there is no longer any offering for sin.” - Hebrews 10

Short of using a crayon, I don’t know how it could be made any clearer: “there is no longer any offering for sin”.

annalex, you write, “St. Paul in 1 Cor. 11 says “For as often as you shall eat this bread, and drink the chalice, you shall shew the death of the Lord, until he come”.

Correct. Let’s look at the passage in its context:

“For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread; and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, “This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me.”

“In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me.”

“For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until He comes. Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord.”

There is no hint here of offering Jesus in sacrifice. “in remembrance of Me...in remembrance of Me...” You “proclaim” his death. If you do this “in an unworthy manner, [you] shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord.”

Of course! It would be spitting on Jesus, to use more modern terms. None of this suggests we have or need priests - sacrifice offering priests - who offer Jesus.

The article by Philip Schaff discusses how the Eucharist moved from a sacrifice of thanksgiving and praise for what God had done into a sacrifice for sins. It took roughly 1000 years to develop that idea.

I cannot stop anyone from believing it, but it simply isn’t true that it is taught in the New Testament and practiced by all the early church.

This is why Protestants don’t accept sacred tradition. All churches have tradition, but it isn’t sacred. It is tradition, and the best way to avoid 2000 years of creeping error is to go back to the source documents. Now, k50 & I don’t see eye to eye on how pure those source documents - how well we can figure out what the originals had in them - but it seems obvious that written documents evolve slower than traditions based on what various men have taught and preached for the last 2000 years.

Also: kosta50, we’ve often disagreed, but I want to publicly thank you for your posts here. I’ve seen much of the same material spread through a variety of books, but I thought your summary quite powerful. In fact, I’ve bookmarked it for future reference...who ever woulda thunk it?


214 posted on 11/05/2009 7:19:01 AM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: kosta50

“That’s why it is only in 1 Pet 2:5 that we see introduction of the “spiritual priesthood” and “spiritual sacrifice” (how convenient).”

I think that was a very Jewish idea Peter offered...

Hsa 6:6 For I desire steadfast love and not sacrifice, the knowledge of God rather than burnt offerings.

Psa 50:14 “Offer to God a sacrifice of thanksgiving, and perform your vows to the Most High,

Psa 50:23 “The one who offers thanksgiving as his sacrifice glorifies me; to one who orders his way rightly I will show the salvation of God!”

Psa 116:17 I will offer to you the sacrifice of thanksgiving and call on the name of the Lord .


215 posted on 11/05/2009 7:33:57 AM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: Mr Rogers; kosta50; annalex

“The article by Philip Schaff discusses how the Eucharist moved from a sacrifice of thanksgiving and praise for what God had done into a sacrifice for sins. It took roughly 1000 years to develop that idea.”

Not in the East, Mr. R. There are indeed prayers about the Eucharist being celebrated and consumed for the forgiveness of sins, but there is even more regarding thanksgiving and praise. For example:

“It is proper and right to sing to You, bless You, praise You, thank You and worship You in all places of Your dominion; for You are God ineffable, beyond comprehension, invisible, beyond understanding, existing forever and always the same; You and Your only begotten Son and Your Holy Spirit. You brought us into being out of nothing, and when we fell, You raised us up again. You did not cease doing everything until You led us to heaven and granted us Your kingdom to come. For all these things we thank You and Your only begotten Son and Your Holy Spirit; for all things that we know and do not know, for blessings seen and unseen that have been bestowed upon us. We also thank You for this liturgy which You are pleased to accept from our hands, even though You are surrounded by thousands of Archangels and tens of thousands of Angels, by the Cherubim and Seraphim, six-winged, many-eyed, soaring with their wings,...”

The Divine Liturgy is far, far more a liturgy of praise and thanksgiving and supplication than of propitiation and blood sacrifice. Of course, our Divine Liturgies are at the latest from the late 4th, very early 5th centuries so the change to the Anselmian blood atonement sacrifice focus of the West from about 1000 years ago simply isn’t a focus we ever adopted.

BTW, you want to read the Protestant version of the Ante Nicene, Nicene and Post Nicene Fathers with a grain of salt. The commentary is spun, just as the Roman Catholic version is. Its best just to read what The Fathers say and skip the commentary in the series.


216 posted on 11/05/2009 8:54:51 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Kolokotronis

I just posted Schaff’s writings here:

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-religion/2379242/posts

If you don’t mind, I’d like to add your comment to that thread, since it seems quite appropriate. I would like to read the Church Fathers, but even as a retired guy I find myself barely able to read 1/10 of what I want!


217 posted on 11/05/2009 9:03:09 AM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: annalex; Kolokotronis; Mr Rogers; MarkBsnr
[re: Greek for priest is: hierus] That is for Hebrew priests, who are in your colorful language, "killed and taken over". Our priests are presbyters

Really? So, who are the yereys, the protoyereys, the hieromonks in the Orthodox Church? My "Jewish" clergy?

218 posted on 11/05/2009 9:35:20 AM PST by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: Kolokotronis
But ἱερεύς seems to only apply to pagan and Hebrew priests in patristic literature, no?
219 posted on 11/05/2009 10:11:03 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex
"But ἱερεύς seems to only apply to pagan and Hebrew priests in patristic literature, no?

Take a quick look at this. Maybe more later:

http://www.eastern-orthodoxy.com/mysticalprayers.doc

220 posted on 11/05/2009 10:28:26 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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