[metmom]

Yes it does; did Christ inherit "an inclination toward sin" from his mother? If not, why not?

No. Because the sin nature comes through the Father and since Jesus father was God, He had no sin nature.

That's why it was not necessary for Mary to be sinless.

[caww]

the sin nature comes through the Father and since Jesus father was God, He had no sin nature......That's why it was not necessary for Mary to be sinless.>p< Simply stated and not too hard for people to understand. But I suspect we'll hear all the reasons why Rome determined she was...none of which is Biblical and in fact Rome acknowledges it's not.

[Judith Anne]

No. Because the sin nature comes through the Father and since Jesus father was God, He had no sin nature.

That's why it was not necessary for Mary to be sinless.

Oh, funny! Women don't transfer the "sin nature" to their children? What a JOKE! Mary didn't, because she was preserved from all stain of sin by Christ, her Son, Who was also her Savior. No other woman bore Christ, no other woman was so blessed by God. Every other woman transfers her own "sin nature" to her children, as does every man to his children.