I have called no one a dolt. When one takes the main meaning and translation of a word and it agrees with all other uses of that word and is backed up by other scholars and is supported by other passages in scripture it becomes clear what the intent of the word usage was.
>>Would we be that bold if we were in front of a foreign speaking judge and then tell him off by a translation dictionary to tell him he is wrong when he could throw you in Jail.<<
If the evidence backed up the translation dictionary and all usages of the word agreed with my understanding you can bet I would defend my case and understanding.
I find it astounding that you have offered no proof of my not using any word correctly. Rather you try to spin around the edges but never show where the intended meaning of the word is something different.
Really? let me see if I can find that reply? Amazing!