Posted on 04/08/2014 6:44:54 AM PDT by SeekAndFind
Because homosexual acts, and homosexual rape are completely moral acts that God doesn't bring judgment against < /sarc>
Why does everyone assume that the story of Sodom is the source and proof-text for the sinfulness of homosexuality? Homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in Leviticus 18.
What do you say to Homosexuals who would agree that it is about Hospitality AND gang rape BUT NOT consensual sex (especially when both partners love each other)?
The reason I ask is because I’ve heard this reasoning many times from gay friendly churches.
Also the gays would argue that Leviticus was not even written yet during the time of Sodom and Gomorrah...
Ever since Vatican II, which seemed to be the kick-off point for homosexual apologetics, the clergy have been hastening to tell us that the sin of Sodom was not homosexuality.
However, the fact that the word “sodomy” existed long before Vatican II indicates that most people understood it this way, that is, that the sin of Sodom was sexual sin.
The first time I heard in a homily that it was “failure to provide hospitality,” I almost burst out laughing.
Do gays think God changed his mind between the time of Sodom and the writing of Leviticus 18:22,24?
Oh-oh ... how long befor Monsignor is called in for a dressing down from ++Wuerl over this essay?
What, not setting out the guest towels? It must be that, never mind the buggery.
I found this by Daniel Greenfield (whose writing I really enjoy) about a 'show offer'.
He talks about a 'show offer' and explains that Lot was really saying was 'there is about as good a chance of me turning these guys over to you as there is to me giving you my virgin daughters'. Per Daniel, the mob understood what he was saying and there were livid.
What was the sin of Gomorrah?
and they were livid.
They partied with the Sodomites.
RE: What was the sin of Gomorrah?
Same as Sodom’s... the two are often mentioned as a PAIR.
See Matthew 10:15 and Jude 1:7 for instance.
How would the Sodomites have known about Leviticus 18? Moses had not yet been born to even pen the book when God destroyed the perverts.
The story is as clear as a bell, what it is about. Anybody who says the sin of Sodom was lack of hospitality is rationalizing. The Bible makes clear that the men of Sodom were almost all given in to homosexuality. Those wanting to engage in homosexuality reject all authority. They will bend and distort any truth that gets in their way, even to include the meaning of marriage.
These people are so far gone that nothing can be done with them. I’m sorry but they are lost. Only God can turn their heads.
Very solid analysis.
Exactly, the problem with Sodom was SIN. The homosexual acts were just one manifestation of it.
Everyone? [exaggeration] Source? [a very good one, but certainly not the only one as you point out] Proof-text ....
Sodomite. As words go, it's a pretty powerful one. No surprise that its use is verbotten in the current PC environment. But in truth, even though forbidden to say in public, Sodomite = homosexual = 'gay'. And the origin of the word is absolutely clear from the Bible. As a "proof-text", IMHO, that is hard to beat.
And they are correct. None of scripture was written at that time - Moses, author of the first five books, did not come along until quite a while after Sodom was destroyed. The relevance of this objection should be addressed to those that actually lived in Sodom. Oops! They're dead.
The reason I ask is because I’ve heard this reasoning many times from gay friendly churches.
I'd say that male homosex is a capital offense, Genesis 19 or no Genesis 19.
Also the gays would argue that Leviticus was not even written yet during the time of Sodom and Gomorrah...
For that matter, neither was Genesis. (That's not actually true. The Torah was written before the universe was created.)
I don't understand the problem you're having. Homosexual relations are forbidden. Why do so many people think the whole issue hangs on Genesis 19?
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