Posted on 08/01/2018 9:37:44 AM PDT by Olog-hai
Ref subject to the jurisdiction thereof
See Title 31 Section 515.329 - Person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States; person subject to U.S. jurisdiction.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/31/515.329
That might not work any more, at least not in states that issue licenses to illegal aliens.
And the Matricula Consular probably counts as an ID in those benighted state, too.
That is why we should have expulsion states that fail to comply get expulsed from the Republic. Oh and any state that does, does not get to keep the counties that elect to remain in the Republic. Guaranteed the progressive socialist problem would disappear in a couple of years.
I like your idea better than mine. I figured, if a state allows illegals to vote, just exclude their votes because the state “officially” tainted their votes.
Just in case anyone was wondering. :^) In an unrelated development, President Trump's polling has risen to 50 percent. Thanks Olog-hai.
Pretty soon we will figure out what IS means.
BTTT
Great info, argument.
Thanks for posting :)
LOL.
Gotta keep those Russians from voting...
They almost never card me any more. Doubt they would card Donald either.
But they could, if they wanted to. His comment, while not strictly 1000% correct down to the last detail, still conveys a valid point.
Not only does Pres. Trump want voter ID, but consider the following …
Patriots have until 2020 to work with their state officials to iron out predictable problems with enforcing Section 2 of 14th Amendment — legal fights, activist judges, etc..
Problems also including expense and issue of possible smart, scannable citizenship / photo ID cards to address problem of Democratic voting officials with “poor" eyesight.
Noting that subsequent voting-related amendments to the Constitution have effectively modified Sec. 2 of the 14th Amendment, please consider the following.
Sec. 2 was made to address House of Representatives-related voting fraud by state actors, a concern evidenced the ongoing political party cold war of the Civil War.
”14th Amendment, Section 2. Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens [emphasis added] twenty-one years of age in such State."
Note that Sec. 2 clearly indicates that only citizens are allowed to vote, the remedy for violating Sec. 2 also clearly indicating to that only citizens can vote.
Also note that even though 14A made the former slaves citizens, the states uniquely have the power to decide who voted regardless of citizenship. It wasn’t until the states ratified the 15th Amendment, 14 & 15 ratified under very questionable circumstances, that male freedmen had the power to vote.
Again, regardless what activist judges have been saying about voter ID, based on Sec. 2, I believe that states are obligated to allow only citizens to vote, Sec. 2 and its remedy sadly still applicable to modern elections, that section practically necessitating that citizens present a valid citizenship / photo ID card before being allowed to vote.
Corrections, insights welcome.
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