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To: Wonder Warthog
>>I've seen how Rome defines and then redefines things."<<

"What you've seen" is irrelevant. I've given you the official definitions as used by the Church. Show me where they have changed over time.

The concepts Rome advocates for this are not in the New Testament. They were not taught by the Apostles. There's your change right there.

>>"Interesting question. We don't know for sure. Hence, sheer speculation on your part."<<

Who else is there?? The Bible doesn't record anyone other than Mary as "following Christ" for 30+ years. The Wedding at Cana seems pretty definitive to me.

Again...speculation on your part. I do agree that Mary was one of the earliest believers. However there are other candidates as well. Joseph, Zacharias, Elizabeth...

>> "You presume they were speaking Aramaic."<<

Since Aramaic was the native language of Jesus, Mary, and John, it is highly likely that in the stressful situation at Golgotha, that is what was used.

You're still presuming in your statement by noting it "is highly likely".

However, the NT is recorded in Greek as moved by the Spirit. To be sure, there are some Aramaic phrases in the NT. However, the text is Greek.

13 posted on 09/13/2018 4:45:34 AM PDT by ealgeone (SCRIPTURE DOES NOT CHANGE!)
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To: ealgeone
"The concepts Rome advocates for this are not in the New Testament. They were not taught by the Apostles. There's your change right there."

Both doctrines date back at least to 400AD, and have been taught exactly the same until now.

"However there are other candidates as well. Joseph, Zacharias, Elizabeth..."

None of whom pre-date Mary.

14 posted on 09/13/2018 5:39:47 AM PDT by Wonder Warthog (The Hog of Steel and NRA Life Member)
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