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To: drstevej
That was the pharisees using hyperbole. It wasn't Jesus speaking. It wasn't God's word, it was the word of the Pharisees. You will need a better verse than that to show that when Jesus said the whole world, Jesus did not mean the whole world!

Was our Lord prone to this same hyperbole as the Pharisees? I think not. Prove me wrong.

17 posted on 04/21/2002 12:32:32 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: P-Marlowe
P-M, I think you missed my point.

My point is that the NT the greek word cosmos, world, can be used in a precise sense to mean every people without exception, it can be used figuratively to mean the world system, or it can be used figuratively (hyperbole) as illustrated in the passage.

Jesus uses hyperbole -- otherwise any of us who have lusted should either pluck our eyes out or be disobedient to Jesus.

I don't personally take the "world passages" on the atonement in a limited sense but I can see the Reformed argument that world does not always mean world in the sense of everybody without exception.

The proper method of interpretation is to [1] understand the range of meanings a word may have; and [2] select the meaaning that best fits the text. Example the word "wave" can mean a number of things: [1] a greeting gesture; [2] a crest of water; [3] a hairdo; [4] a Tulane fan (if preceeded by Green). If I say I love to surf the waves. You do not expect me to he surfboarding on Benny Hinn's hair!

21 posted on 04/21/2002 12:55:01 PM PDT by drstevej
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