Posted on 04/11/2002 3:11:39 PM PDT by Ten Megaton Solution
Edited on 07/12/2004 3:52:33 PM PDT by Jim Robinson. [history]
Is it legal for the government to use its power of eminent domain to condemn private property, then transfer the same property to another private owner for development purposes? Or does such action represent an unconstitutional "taking" of private property? The debate centers on the definition of "public use" under the Fifth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, which reads " nor shall private property be taken for public use without just compensation."
(Excerpt) Read more at washtimes.com ...
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