It might also interest idiot liberals to consider that each and every time the words "the people" is used in the other articles of the Bill of Rights, it is used to describe an individual right.
Now, why would the Founders, notoriously meticulous and careful writers, mean something different when they wrote "the people" in the Second Amendment?
And that's not even to discuss the wealth of evidence in the records of the debates and the Founders other writings to support the "individual right" position.
And besides, since when does the left give a shit about textual interpretation of the constitution? Watching them contort themselves around a few phrases in a lame attempt to make their case is almost painful and embarrasing, since we know they couldn't care less about the written consitution, supporting, as they do, such abominations as Roe v. Wade which bears no resemblance to the written constitution.
Not to mention that if the drafters of the 2nd amendment had intended it to only be a right to the individual states, they would have written "...the right of the states to keep and bare arms shall not be infringed." In the 10th amendment there clearly is a distinction between the states and the people, specifically: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.. The two terms are not interchangeable. When the constitution says "the people" it does NOT mean "the states."