Secondly, this statement You don't see the government apologizing for not granting women the legal right to vote prior to 1920. is not entirely true. In the late 1700's and early 1800's, many states allowed women to vote. Eventually, the attitude became that every family had one vote, and the man who headed the family cast the vote for that family. In this sense, denying women the vote was in no way morally equivalent to the wrongs of slavery. In some states, women who headed a family (typically widows) would cast the vote for their family unit. I believe at the time that the amendment was passed giving all women the vote, several states had already granted women the right to vote. You may already know all of this, and it doesn't lessen the point of the commentary. However, sometimes these details can be helpful in an argument.
WFTR
Bill