Posted on 06/06/2002 8:33:35 AM PDT by Huck
Unless I am mistaken, the treaty was never ratified. If so, the treaty was not in effect from a legal standpoint anyway, but was only a voluntary issue. So the president terminating it gives the Senate no standing.
Are these libs conceding that the President may make a treaty enforceable if they never ratified it???
Congress does so many things like this, leaving the ball up in the air, then tries to take credit: such as not declaring wars when they have an obligation to do so.
No, you're thinking of the International Criminal Court treaty, which was signed but never ratified. This is about the 1972 ABM Treaty, which was ratified by the Senate.
Here is the so-called "escape clause", from the ABM Treaty:
. Each Party shall, in exercising its national sovereignty, have the right to withdraw from thisTreaty if it decides that extraordinary events related to the subject matter of this Treaty have jeopardized its supreme interests. It shall give notice of its decision to the other Party six months prior to withdrawal from the Treaty. Such notice shall include a statement of the extraordinary events the notifying Party regards as having jeopardized its supreme interests.
So, who are the parties to the treaty? Is it your contention that President Bush is a party to the treaty? If so, you are mistaken. Look at the first sentence of the actual treaty:
The United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, hereinafter referred to as the Parties,
In fact, wasn't it the argument of many conservatives that one of the parties, the USSR, no longer exists, and therefore, the treaty is null and void? Or is Vladimir Putin the other party? You can't have it both ways. It seems to me, though I don't know if it is anywhere in writing, that the US has continued the treaty with Russia, as if it were the other party. IMO, the argument that the disolution of the USSR nullified the treaty has some merit. At least I am not aware of the counterargument. But you simply can't argue that the treaty provides for the President of the US to withdraw on his own. It doesn't.
It seems scary, and in a real sense illogical, but when I see the term "supreme law of the land" I think, "Constitution." Clearly nobody intended, let us hope, that the president and the Senate alone could modify the First Amendment (for example) without so much as a by-your-leave from the States. But that's what pops into my head.
OTOH it would seem that if a treaty is in fact a "law" it would be backed by Congress as well as the president. Yet the House has no role in treaty making, and the president is alone responsible for foreign policy unless a treaty is to be ratified. But what is a treaty with the US, if a new president can on his word alone abrogate it six months after the signing/ratification? Some "supreme law"!!
This whole issue is quite similar to the war powers issue: it's gotten to the point where presidents who feel like fighting--or, say, bombarding asperin factories--just do it. The role of the Congress is much attenuated. But if the Congress did ever declare war, what role would it have in terminating that emergency state?
Worst of all, of course, is the nonsequeteur known as the 17th Amendment, which converted the Senate from representatives of the States to representatives of the people of the states. The whole rationale of the Senate was, after all, to represent the State governments; now it's just a funny way of districting a second house of the legislature. And, since no State may be deprived of its equal representation in the Senate without its consent, it really required unanimous consent of the states to properly ratify that amendment.
Which gets me onto one of my hobby horses, the fact that the Senate would do its job better if it conducted its business electronically from the respective State capitols . . . and then you wouldn't need seperate elections for Senators; each State could be represented by its own Governor.
Then if a president were impeached he would be judged by a jury of his peers--and if a judge were nominated or impeached, that judge's respect for the States' prerogatives would be taken into consideration much as it was before the states allowed the 17th Amendment to be implemented.
There really should be some change in the Constitution (or at the very least a landmark Supreme Court precedent) to reflect the lessons we should have learned from the machinations of x42 . . .
Following the 1991 dissolution of the Soviet Union, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Russia and Ukraine ratified the treaty and took on its obligations.
The Heritage Foundation chimes in here:
THE ABM TREATY WITH RUSSIA: THE TREATY THAT NEVER WAS
A much better argument, and interesting to read, but not related to the question of how treaties may be terminated under the Constitution. I believe, based on my reading of the arguments, that Congress should do it.
But you won't find that in writing. It is an "implied" power, whereas the power to make treaties is specifically limited, and the status of treaties as "law" is explicitly expressed.
This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.
Treaties, therefore, are laws. That's the first part of the argument. Next we go to the "necessary and proper" clause in Article One: The Legislative Powers:
To make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this Constitution in the government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof.
So what power does the President have to make treaties?
He shall have power, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, to make treaties, provided two thirds of the Senators present concur;
That's all. If memory serves me, President Bush professes to be a strict constructionist. Not in this case, he isn't.
Can you show me what Constitutional power you are referring to? I can't find it.
I think this is one of those "foreign policy actions" hchutch is granting to the Presidential power.
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