Testing my very limited knowledge of Calvinist arcana, does this quote mean that (according to the author) Luther was an "infralapsarian"?
Secondly, I've always wondered (well, not 'always' technically) if infralapsarians believe that the single or double decree (whichever) took place after the fall in Eden in time/space history or before? That is, did Adam have a free will or not? Just curious how the 'lapsarians' of various stripes handle Adam.
Infralapsarianism defines the view that God’s choice of the elect contemplated them as fallen in Adam.
What do you think? Read it again --- excerpted from above:
"The second objection regarding double predestination stems ultimately from a misunderstanding of it. Many caricatures of the doctrine see God as electing and reprobating men in eternity past, with no reference to man as sinner, but merely as creature. Thus, when God reprobated men from eternity, he had to then set His plan into action by then creating them sinful, (that is, create their sin afresh) and actively incline their hearts to wickedness so that he could punish them eternally. This particular doctrine is best called symmetrical predestination, in that God reprobated in the same active fashion as he elects. That is, as God must create a new, righteous, heart in the elect man, God must also create a new, wicked heart in the reprobate man. Very few theologians, especially Reformers, held this particular view.":
"The view that Luther maintains is also the view of the other major Reformers, including John Calvin, as well as earlier St. Augustine and Johann Staupitz.
"This view may be called asymmetrical predestination, as it pictures God electing and reprobating in eternity past with reference to man as sinner, not as creature."
"Therefore, when God had before him the entire human race, he viewed mankind as fallen."
And after all that, you inexplicably ask once more: "...did Adam have a free will or not?"
Erasmus ... is that you?