There’s a book....”Shadow Play” that makes this case....it’s very interesting how he CODED his plays.
From www.shakespeare-oxford.com :
“Although raised as a Protestant, de Vere was rumored to have Catholic sympathies, and in 1580 admitted to the Queen close associations with a group of prominent Catholics. He revealed a plot among them to overthrow her and form a government friendly to the Catholic King Philip of Spain. Although the Queen forgave de Vere this transgression, the resulting uproar led to the arrest of several of the aristocratic conspirators. Those charged then accused Oxford of similar crimes, adding accusations of lechery, drunkenness, and homosexuality. De Vere, though also briefly imprisoned, was not charged with any crime.”
It could very well be that Shakespeare was Roman Catholic. Many people in England were, at the time, closet Catholics. Of course, he might not have been. The Anglican church was different in name only from the Catholics for the most part at the time, and really until fairly recently. So the frame of reference in his writings was the same, nonetheless. It is interesting to ponder, however!
And who would these fardles bear?
I have read the book. It is a good read. It doesn’t necessarily prove anything (and I’m a pretty serious Catholic) but it’s interesting, nonetheless.