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"but what are the rights inherent for a particular term of exchange between the parties in a trade?"

Property rights. "Captialist" A has a right to his property, his investment. "Laborer" B (I don't even like premising these comments in Marxist terms, its icky) has a right to work, or not. His self-possession, if you will. The two enter into contract, and then at the end of the term, the work performed or the widget manufactured is the property of Capitalist A, and the $$ or barter exchanged for the labor is the property of Laborer B, per the terms of the contract. And everyone's rights are intact.

Is that difficult, or am I missing something?

“In a higher phase of communist society, after the enslaving subordination of the individual to the division of labor, and therewith also the antithesis between mental and physical labor, has vanished; after labor has become not only a means of life but life's prime want; after the productive forces have also increased with the all-around development of the individual, and all the springs of co-operative wealth flow more abundantly—only then can the narrow horizon of bourgeois right be crossed in its entirety and society inscribe on its banners: From each according to his ability, to each according to his needs! “-Marx

This is Obama’s governing principle. If you need something the government will provide it to you. If you have more than you need it is the government’s purpose to take it from you and give it to the people who do need it. Obama’s philosophy is stated in the opening seven words of Marx’ quote.