Texas v. White 74 U.S. 700 (1869) the court held that the Constitution did not permit states to unilaterally secede from the United States, and that the ordinances of secession, and all the acts of the legislatures within seceding states intended to give effect to such ordinances, were “absolutely null”. http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0074_0700_ZO.html
The United States was originaly a Confederation governed by the Aerticles of Confederation. When it became united under the Constitution, it was considered that the People, not the States themselves, created one compound government.
The People divided power among branches and levels of government in order to protect individual liberty. Although the “states” ratified the Constitution, it was done by special state “conventions” called with representatives elected solely for that purpose. It was NOT the State legislatures that ratified the document.
For this reason, we are “one nation indivisable.”
Texas Vs. White is irrelevant. A seceded state is not subject to the US Supreme Court’s rulings. BTW, where does the constitution give the Supreme Court the right to even review matters like secession in the first place?
There is no such thing.
That 1869 SCOTUS case is in defiance our founding document.
The Declaration of Independence:
"IN CONGRESS, July 4, 1776. The unanimous Declaration of the thirteen united States of America,
When in the Course of human events, it becomes necessary for one people to dissolve the political bands which have connected them with another, and to assume among the powers of the earth, the separate and equal station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature's God entitle them, a decent respect to the opinions of mankind requires that they should declare the causes which impel them to the separation."