Posted on 02/03/2014 10:11:03 AM PST by Oldpuppymax
Single instant. David was a king not a prophet in the Biblical sense. David repented.
The glaring difference between the two instances is that David, once confronted by his sin, sought forgiveness. Perhaps you unintentionally overlooked that little detail, hmmm?
King David, when confronted later, confessed his actions as sin. The Bible never condones sin. So, what’s your point?
The author might want to mention:
1. God always seemed to tell Mohammed to do what Mohammed wanted to do anyway. I’m always suspicious when God says “do exactly as you like. That’s My will.”
2. The Satanic Verses. At the time Mohammed said them, he claimed they were from God. Later, he didn’t like the contents and claimed they had actually come from Satan. If true, what is a prophet doing channeling Satan and not knowing it? And, how did Mohammed know which was which? On the other hand, his disavowal of the Satanic Verses was, IMHO, more related to the fact that they would have prevented him from doing what he wanted to do at a later time. So he just changed it up with the ol’ Satan made me do it excuse. Thus, I think this actually falls under number 1. Mohammed just made it up to convince followers that they were doing God’s will, not Mohammed’s.
The Biblical patriarchs, some of them, had multiple wives and/or children by slave women, and the kings of Israel and Judah were polygamous. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines, according to the Bible.
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