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To: 2ndDivisionVet
Wouldn't it be safe to say:

From 1787-2009: If you did NOT want to provide abortifacients in your health care plan, you did not have to.

Then in 2009, 0-care stuck its nose into private affairs and then, for the FIRST TIME IN AMERICAN HISTORY, the government could FORCE employers and hospitals to do things that went against their religion.

Am I correct, Or am I missing something?

69 posted on 07/06/2014 8:42:53 PM PDT by Captainpaintball (Immigration without assimilation is the death of a nation)
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To: Captainpaintball
"From 1787-2009: If you did NOT want to provide abortifacients in your health care plan, you did not have to."

You did not have to provide ANY health care, which is why it was called a "benefit" when it was offered.
74 posted on 07/06/2014 9:42:28 PM PDT by Steve_Seattle
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