Tsk, Tsk. You are still at it. No one, and certainly not I, said that no Jew was murdered or tortured in Spain between 1000 A.D. and 1600 A.D. Bear in mind, though, that The Inquisition only existed during 108 years of this period that you have selected.
The issue was the accuracy of the popular understanding of the Inquisition. There is a scholarly literature regarding that, just as there is a scholarly literature about the Crusades and Andalusian Myth that deviate from popular understanding.
You seem to be simply too attached to some sort of victim narrative to discuss any of this rationally. By the way, do you think that the Inquisition was limited to Spain? Do you think that Jews were the only victims of the Inquisition, even in Spain? Do you think that Catholics weren’t tortured and murdered in Spain during the period you cite?
You apparently think that libel is the best offense.
I thought you weren't playing the victim card. Since you use the PC term "CE", what have you renamed the weekdays as? They were named after Norse gods, dontcha know. And let's not even get started on the months.
And which "Holocaust" would that be? The whole language of holocaust denial is biased. I have had many conversations on this subject both in Israel and outside Israel and there is never an acknowledgment by Jews of any holocaust other than Hitler's atrocities committed against the Jews.
As bad as that was, and there is no argument that it wasn't horrendous, it wasn't an isolated incident nor even the worst example in the 20th century. There is never a mention of an equal number of Catholics, Gypsies, Ukrainians, Poles, Russians, and disabled killed. Stalin killed more that three times as many as perished at Hitler's hand and Mao killed more than six times as many.
So when you say holocaust, which one are you referring to and are you denying all of the others?