It entirely depends upon whether or not our Founding Fathers were right.
Are people bound rightly to a monarch? Or do the people have a say in “the political bands which have connected them” and able “to assume among the powers of the earth, the separate and equal station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature’s God entitle them...”
Is it self evident that... “all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights...” and “That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed...”
They were indeed right. Whether or not it was right, at the time, in light of British law is moot.
JWinNC
Oversimplified. The British was not serfs. They was not owned by their Lord. The British Monarch have always governed by consent of the governed. Of course, they had have to turn to the 50th in the chain of succession to pluck George III’s grandfather up from his position as Elector of Hanover and place him on the highest throne in the world in order to avoid having another Catholic king.
“the political bands which have connected them”
That had been resolved in England in 1688 when King James II & VII was deposed by Parliament and replaced with Queen Mary II and King William III.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glorious_Revolution
The American Revolution gave each state/colony the same authority.