But that doesn't come close to invalidating the stunning linguistic and DNA evidence showing a close link between European, Persian and Aryan groups.
The Aryans, if they ever really existed as a singular population, are ‘johnny-come-lately’ in terms of migratory groups.
Agreed. Probably sometime in 2nd millenium BC, which is long after other societies had been in India.
Sanskrit and the Vedic religion were almost duplicated in the kingdom of Mitanni in the Fertile Crescent at about this time. Surely the most logical explanation is a people or group of peoples somewhere north of Persia splitting, one part going SW and the other SW.
Do you have an explanation why this theory is offensive to Indians?
It is offensive to Indians because their own archaeological investigations indicate it is false.