Posted on 01/31/2014 11:47:48 PM PST by Berlin_Freeper
According to your tables, France suffered 4.29% of its population killed, while Germany had 3.82%. UK had only 2.2%, while USA was at 0.13%.
I’m not sure that difference of .5% is enough by itself to create the obviously vastly different psychological effects in France vs. Germany.
It’s interesting that these rates are dwarfed by those suffered by Serbia (16%) and the Ottoman Empire (14%).
The death rates for Germany and France would in previous centuries have been considered pretty minor. Though in WWI remarkably few civilians died when compared to previous wars, concentrating the deaths that did occur among military age men. Due to the blockade, I wouldn’t be surprised if Germany had a higher death rate among civilians.
38 days later most of those men would be lying dead on the ground in Montana near the Little Big Horn River. Left behind at Fort Lincoln was at least one though some accounts say 4 of the infamous machine guns. Many Military historians claim one gun properly deployed would have most likely saved Custer's 7th Cav. and routed the Indians.
The Serbian numbers surprised the heck out of me!
Yup. Read about the Serbian front sometimes. A large percentage of the entire nation retreated with the army across the winter mountains in 1915.
The 16% number I posted is contested. I’ve seen claims of upwards of 25% of the Serbian population killed in WWI, though many from disease and starvation, not in combat.
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