In 1652, Rhode Island passed the first abolition law in the thirteen colonies, banning African slavery.[13]
It's about halfway down.
In 1652, Rhode Island passed the first abolition law in the thirteen colonies, banning African slavery.[13]
HERE
It's about halfway down.
Seriously? Are you just TRYING to be argumentative for no other purpose? The dispute isn't about whether or not they passed a law, the dispute is about whether or not they were a slave state in 1776, and the fact remains that in 1776, Rhode Island was a slave state.
The very sentence you quote is followed by these sentences:
The law was not enforced by the end of the 17th century. By 1774, the slave population of RI was 6.3%, nearly twice as high as any other New England colony.
You could not possibly have copied your quote above without noticing that next two sentences which demonstrates it to be completely non-operational, and effectively nothing but legislative theater.
In all particulars, Rhode Island was a slave state in 1776, as were all the other states in the Union, including Pennsylvania (the seat of our Government at the time) and Massachusetts.
So again, I ask you, are you just trying to be argumentative for no other purpose than the sake of arguing?