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To: odawg
Yes, it is defined in the legal theory of the day, and specifically in the Naturalization Act of 1790.

No, it was defined in English common law prior to the adoption of the Constitution. The reading in the law of 1790 was actually an aberrant definition, and one which Madison succeeded in removing a mere five years later.

42 posted on 03/20/2016 12:18:52 PM PDT by Yashcheritsiy (You can't have a constitution without a country to go with it)
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To: Yashcheritsiy

English Common Law was NEVER adopted as the law of the United States, despite its prevalence in many of the individual states. In fact most of the Framers were actively hostile to the notion. Most certainle our citizenship would NEVER have been modeled on the English law which at the time did not even cosider the notion of “citizenship”.

The English were subjects of the King, and we Americans determined that we would NEVER be subjects again. If yoy recall correctly, we fought a very tough war to establish just that.


67 posted on 03/20/2016 12:38:15 PM PDT by John Valentine (Deep in the Heart of Texas)
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To: Yashcheritsiy
No, it was defined in English common law prior to the adoption of the Constitution.

No it wasn't. I know. I've looked.

85 posted on 03/20/2016 1:01:21 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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To: Yashcheritsiy

“No, it was defined in English common law prior to the adoption of the Constitution. The reading in the law of 1790 was actually an aberrant definition, and one which Madison succeeded in removing a mere five years later.”

You are so full of crap.


128 posted on 03/20/2016 2:04:07 PM PDT by odawg
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