Posted on 03/05/2005 9:20:08 AM PST by Cato1
90 Year old Man's Family Denied Indult Mass for Funeral
As much as do not share most of the opinions of M. Matt's The Remnant, this is a fine article is about a Catholic who's last wish was to have a Indult TLM for his funeral. Something well within his rights as a Catholic.
See Article here
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| Original article from The Remnant |
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The bishop of New Ulm said that to allow the man's last wish to be buried using the Funeral Mass of 1962 would constitute an act of personal devotion, which is opposed to the spirit of Vatican II, or we should say, post Vatican II reform of the liturgy. On the face of it this does not make sense. The man himself is dead, so it isn't for his private devotion. Second, it is a funeral mass like others, does this mean all funeral masses are private devotion. What is the difference between a Novus Ordo and Tridentine Funeral Mass. Using this logic all funeral masses should be abolished and only done when there is a pre-scheduled daily or weekend mass. Then all masses will be funeral masses.
I don't want to criticize the good bishop, but only his questionable arguments that were probably the work of one of his people, not himself.
This 90 year old man should have had the grace of a TLM for his funeral if his pastor said it was ok and there were priests to do it. The Bishop of New Ulm should think better of his flock, with all due respect.
But being from Minnesota, I can remember New Ulm being somewhat of an outlayer theologically and practically.
sorry about extra text i thought i was just previewing, didn't mean to post
I'm not Catholic so I am by no means an expert on all of the intricacies involved here, but I don't see what the big deal is about allowing this man to have the type of funeral mass that he wanted. What difference does it make to the Church if it's done in Latin?
It's not the fact that it's in latin that bothers them, it's the fact that it's the old rite. They wouldn't even have to ask for permission to do it in latin.
Like I said in my previous post, I'm not particularly knowledgeable about this, so you'll have to bear with me. Why would it be a problem for anyone that the gentleman's funeral service be the old rite? Would it be a violation of Church tenets in some way?
Not at all, in fact it would be in keeping with them. I wish I had a good answer for you, but unfortunately there isn't one. The fact is bishops should not be forbidding the old Mass, and the Pope has even asked them to be generous in allowing it. I guess the real answer is that some bishops are threatened by the old Mass.
These may be questions that you can't answer, but why would they be threatened by it? What possible difference could it make to them? And why aren't they disciplined when they don't honor the teachings of the Church?
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