Posted on 09/29/2005 11:11:56 AM PDT by stan_sipple
One puzzling aspect of Tom DeLay's indictment is that DeLay agreed to waive the statute of limitations applicable to the alleged offense. For the non-lawyers out there in VC Land, a "statute of limitations" in criminal law is a law that gives the government a specific window of time in which to bring a criminal charge. The Texas statute gave the government three years after the crime was committed to bring charges. By waiving the statute, DeLay consented to being charged outside that window of time.
(Excerpt) Read more at volokh.com ...
Maybe because he is innocent and thinks a trial will clear his name? I am not saying it is a GOOD strategy, but it makes sense. The whole think makes me sick. If this goes in front of a Clinton Judge Delay will be hung no matter what the facts are.
If he's innocent, better to have it out in court and clear his name. Stuff like this can stick to a pol for the rest of his career.
How did Travis county elect this goober?
There are no statute of limitations on murder.
Wow, that is a lesson I had not heard. Brilliant.
Delay explained this on Brit Hume's show last night. Said he was basically extorted into doing so. Said that the prosecutor implied he would dismiss the charges or something like that if he did it.
Because he wants the dems to chase him into the maze so he can leave them there.
In the peoples republic of massachusetts, leaving a woman to drown in a wrecked car is probably just garden variety manslaughter
Maybe too so prosecutors can dig up something on hillary and bill right before the 2008 election and lay it on em
Delay explained this on Brit Hume's show last night. Said he was basically extorted into doing so. Said that the prosecutor implied he would dismiss the charges or something like that if he did it.
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Implied? If he and his attorney did this, it does not bode well for his substantive defense. Dumb move.
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