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To: Vesparado
I agree and the fact is, “direct taxes” are still required by the Constitution to be apportioned among the States as I documented at the top of the thread. Additionally, since direct taxes are required to be apportioned using the apportionment formula in our Constitution, and the individual mandate tax is not apportioned among the states under the ACA but rather is selectively imposed upon an identifiable group of citizens of the united States, Roberts has yet to establish which constitutionally authorized taxing authority is resorted to.

And what were our founders reasons for requiring direct taxes to be apportioned? Let our founding fathers once again speak for themselves:

Pinckney addressing the S.C. ratification convention with regard to the rule of apportionment says:

“With regard to the general government imposing internal taxes upon us, he contended that it was absolutely necessary they should have such a power: requisitions had been in vain tried every year since the ratification of the old Confederation, and not a single state had paid the quota required of her. The general government could not abuse this power, and favor one state and oppress another, as each state was to be taxed only in proportion to its representation“__ 4 Elliot‘s, S.C., 305-6

Also see: “The proportion of taxes are fixed by the number of inhabitants, and not regulated by the extent of the territory, or fertility of soil” 3 Elliot`s, 243, “Each state will know, from its population, its proportion of any general tax” ___ Mr. George Nicholas, during the ratification debates of our Constitution.

And, Mr. Madison goes on to remark about Congress’s “general power of taxation” that, "they will be limited to fix the proportion of each State, and they must raise it in the most convenient and satisfactory manner to the public." 3 Elliot‘s, 255

And if there is any confusion about the rule of apportionment intentionally designed to cure an evil of democracy, and insure that the people of those states contributing the lion’s share of any general tax laid among the States to fund the federal government are guaranteed a proportional vote in Congress equal to their contribution, Mr. PENDLETON says:

“The apportionment of representation and taxation by the same scale is just; it removes the objection, that, while Virginia paid one sixth part of the expenses of the Union [under the Articles of Confederation], she had no more weight in public counsels than Delaware, which paid but a very small portion” 3 Elliot‘s 41

JWK

The only ones who win under Obama/Roberts’care are thieves and parasites ___ all others pay cash!

17 posted on 06/30/2012 4:26:47 PM PDT by JOHN W K
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To: holdonnow

?ping?


18 posted on 06/30/2012 4:44:22 PM PDT by TornadoAlley3 (Obama is everything Oklahoma is not.)
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To: JOHN W K
I agree and the fact is, “direct taxes” are still required by the Constitution to be apportioned among the States as I documented at the top of the thread. Additionally, since direct taxes are required to be apportioned using the apportionment formula in our Constitution, and the individual mandate tax is not apportioned among the states under the ACA but rather is selectively imposed upon an identifiable group of citizens of the united States, Roberts has yet to establish which constitutionally authorized taxing authority is resorted to.

Maybe congress can help clarify the Robert's hellcare bill by passing a direct tax of it's own. All person's who don't vote for a Conservative candidate in the upcoming election will be taxed or some such rubbish.

Let the Dems take it to court.
23 posted on 06/30/2012 5:27:59 PM PDT by Electric Graffiti (Crush your enemies, see them driven before you, and hear the lamentation of their Moonbats)
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