To: ExGeeEye
The first time I heard that, it took me less than a minute to think of two ways it could be abused to the detriment of the Republic; one way leads to a landed elite making all the decisions (AKA feudalism), and the other to a dilution of the vote as bad as, possibly worse than, the way it is today. It worked from 1790 to 1850. But yes, in 1790 only 10% of the population of the US could vote (white males mostly).
To: Rightwing Conspiratr1
Without the vote, there is no representation, and
Taxation without representation...
...well, you know the rest.
81 posted on
10/21/2013 3:51:19 PM PDT by
ExGeeEye
(It's been over 90 days; time to start on 2014. Carpe GOP!)
To: Rightwing Conspiratr1
Black freedmen were permitted to vote in NC until 1835.
Women got the vote first in Wyoming. They thought it would lure some women there, and the cowboys were lonely.
95 posted on
10/22/2013 3:34:09 PM PDT by
donmeaker
(The lessons of Weimar will soon be repeated.)
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