[Thommas]

..have a judge arbitrarily decide that you are in some form of breach of fraud when no damages occurred at all?”

How can there be fraud if the "victim" was not only free of damage but did not rely on the "perpetrator's" representation?

Not only does this case not follow the objective definition of fraud, it awards damages that have no discernible foundation.

[FreeReign]

How can there be fraud if the "victim" was not only free of damage but did not rely on the "perpetrator's" representation?

Add to those two points, three additional points.

The "victims" weren't the plaintiffs.

The "perp" included a huge disclaimer.

Valuations are subjective.