That didn't mean there weren't periods where they were left in peace to prosper.
If that hadn't been the case Spain would have been just another Dark Ages sump like most the rest of Europe and vast stretches of the Middle East and North Africa.
So from 600 to 1600 Europe other than Spain was a “dark ages sump” and it was because Jews were left in peace to prosper by Muslims that Spain wasn’t a dark ages sump? I think you are either completely not worth talking to or are seriously off your “game” right now.