OK, maybe just a lecture from the Court, followed by parental punishment as they see fit.
However, without resort to soft science?Liberoid platitutdes, can any FReeper point me to real hard data showing actual damages to a young male getting an early introduction to sex?
Given that females tend to imprint on their first sex partners, I understand parental/religious/societal regulation of female sexual exploration.
My question is about hard data (NO PUN intended, Liberal!) regarding demonstrated damage to the male in the same age group, so specific references would be appreciated."
Right here. Clearly stated that barring demonstrable evidence showing harm, that sex between a 38 year woman and a 12 year old boy is ok. Laws, logic, reason, history, consent, informed consent all ignored for false standard namely that of "proof of harm". When proof of harm is provided, although it's not a requirement to justify the laws, it's ignored. This can't be considered anything else but a defense of paedophilia...not an effective defense but a defense just the same.
If you're referring to post #59, it wasn't ignored. It was blamed on Jewish guilt®.
“This can’t be considered anything else but a defense of paedophilia...not an effective defense but a defense just the same.”
My, my! TOuchy, and nasty, aren’t you?
Do consider I raised the questions because most males, nearly all cultures, and virtually all of recorded history indicates no “damage” from a young male having willing, not forced sex with a female.
Are you part of those who make a living in the child abuse industry, perchance?