No it isn't.
Yes, it is.
It operates as a for-profit entity, and any direct profits are paid to the Treasury
Why would the owners pay the profits to the Treasury?
To maintain the illusion that was advanced when the Fed was formed by bankers, for bankers, in 1913, that it exists as some sort of extension of the Treasury and for the good of the people. Neither is true.
while the indirect profits
What's an indirect profit?
I defined the term in the part of comment that you snipped. Go back to my original comment for the definition.
Your cited source is tainted and subjective, being the description of the Fed, by the Fed.
Yeah, why listen to the Fed about the Fed? We could cite some conspiracy website written by some idiot instead. LOL
What conspiracy website or "idiot" did I cite?
And speaking of conspiracy websites cited by idiots, you snipped the part of my post with the definition of the Democrat Party by the Democrat Party as an example of the intellectually dishonest and transparently deceptive method you used to supply a definition of the Fed by the Fed.
Why did you do that?
No it isn't.
Yes, it is.
Prove it.
To maintain the illusion
LOL! $78.4 billion is a pretty powerful illusion.
I defined the term
No you didn't.
while the indirect profits it makes for its member owners by implementation of its unchecked and uncontrolled policies are retained by those banks.
See, that's not a definition.
What conspiracy website or "idiot" did I cite?
You didn't cite any source for your silly claim. Feel free to cite one that proves your claim.