It seems doubtful that US Code Title 18, Part I, Chapter 13, § 241 would apply to a violation of a state law or constitution.
It also seems unlikely that the 14th ammendment would change that, since the standard SCOTUS interprtation of it is “it means whatever the hell we want it to mean at any given time”** and I doubt they will want it to mean what you want it to mean.
** - Same as the rest of the Constitution
You hit on something that REALLY disturbs me; the USSC is the head of the most lawless of the three branches: the Judiciary.
I do not say this lightly; but consider how many judges think of themselves as god-kings and wrap themselves up in precedence, rather than what the law ACTUALLY says, expecting all lesser beings [mere mortals] to bow and swoon and revere their pronouncements as utterly infallible! {Which is laughable on its face considering how many overturnings of rulings there are...}
One of the best/worst examples is the 2005 Kelo v. New London decision. In this case the city (New London) argued that the *projected* tax-revenue [increase] of using eminent domain to seize Kelo’s property and turn it over to a private developer... and they won!
Consider the ramifications of this: the IMAGINARY “we think” is valid & satisfactory justification for the taking of someone’s property. THERE ARE NOW NO PRIVATE PROPERTY RIGHTS!