“Women didn’t have the right to vote in the US until a century and a half after men did”
Well, you’re focusing on the US, which had some of the most progressive voting rights in the world. Still, even here not ALL men had the right to vote that early. In the beginning most men did not have the right to vote, only white male property owners, who were a minority. Also, in most cases non-Christians could not vote either, and there were also requirements to pay poll taxes, or literacy tests. It wasn’t until 1870 that all men in the US achieved legal voting rights.
Still, for non-whites just having the “right” didn’t translate to actually being able to vote everywhere, until 1965 with the Voting Rights Act. White women, on the other hand, had freer voting rights starting in 1920. So, even in the US, some women were voting decades before some men were. It’s not as cut-and-dry a scenario as some like to paint.
You’re being ridiculous. Only men had the right to vote in the US for 150 years, and blacks had the right to vote three generations before women did.
No, suffrage wasn’t absolutely universal for men immediately and yes, there was some practical denial of blacks’ right to vote in the South up until the ‘60s, but that doesn’t obscure the basic facts.
Rush’s stupid comment has sent misogynist FReepers into a tizzy of idiocy.