Long before Johnson owned a slave, the original "nigars" we repurchased and owned by someone (as far as I know we don't know whom), but we do know that in VA they did not have political rights, and in 1638 there was a slave auction in VA---to my knowledge no "indentured servant" auction ever occurred, because indentures were not regarded under English (borrowing from Roman) law defined as "movable property" as were VA slaves. So it is clear that at least in some (I would say, most) cases, "nigars" arrived with the presumption of servitude. Again, treatment gives clues as to STATUS, butt not PRACTICE. That is, any freeman at any time prior to the institutionalization of slavery in the mid1600s could free EITHER a slave or indenture. Some did, many did not.
iIn 1640, a slave was branded according to VA legal records. This did NOT occur with free men who had voluntarily signed indenture contracts. It is true that terms of indenture could be extended for a variety of reasons, sometimes effectively for life. But even then indentures were not viewed as disposable property. Indentures were NOT routinely chained, ESP. After arrival at destination. (Again, you can find exceptions for criminals placed into indenture in lieu of jail---but even these had time limits on their service.)
Someone bought and owned the 1619 "nigars" and someone bought "slaves" (all black) in 1638. Laws differed by colony---we have a black man apparently srvng in the MD legislature in 1640 or so.
In short, anyone thinking Johnson represented typical status of most blacks in the south prior to 1650 is making a serious mistake. There were actual blacks TREATED as indentures---but to my knowledge none ever signed a contract, nor were the signatures (or witness testimony) of black indentures ever recognized (whites were), but the majority were not freed or the numbers of free men of color would have exploded between 1620 and 1660, but instead salve numbers grew.
Thanks. Now I know more about slaves than I ever thought I would.
A Dutch slave trader exchanged his cargo of Africans for food in 1619. The Africans became indentured servants, similar in legal position to many poor Englishmen who traded several years of labor in exchange for passage to America.
My post 204 mentioned slavery in New York that began in 1626. I did find a more accurate description of slavery in New York, probably the source for the Wikipedia link I posted in 204. Here is the more accurate link that says essentially the same thing: More accurate source.
Spain established settlements/colonies within what is now the continental US earlier than England or Holland established their colonies. Here is a site that mentions slavery in Florida as early as 1565[Link]:
Four and a half centuries ago, St. Augustine was the hub of the slave trade in Spanish colonial Florida, a distinction that continued through the early 1800s.
The slave trade was part of the capital city's economy from its founding in 1565, when Spanish explorer and founder Pedro Menendez de Aviles included black slaves among the New World's first Spanish settlers.
"The Spanish Crown was one of the largest slaveholders, workers on the defense works," said St. Augustine historian Susan R. Parker. And, though many of the records from that period are lost, documents from the Catholic Church reveal slavery's deep roots in North Florida's history.
In 1606, one year before the founding of Jamestown, Va., the first documented slave birth was recorded in St. Augustine. Agustin was baptized in the Catholic faith. He was the son of Agustin and Francisca, both listed as slaves in church baptismal records.
There already was slavery among the native peoples before Europeans arrived. For example, in Mexico and Central America [Link] and in New Mexico where Indians were made slaves and had slaves themselves [Link 2]:
According to the reports of the first Europeans to visit the New World, slavery was almost universal in what is now Mexico and Central America. Theoretically, with the arrival of Europeans, that should have changed.