I think that on technical grounds, this statement is flawed and although this will get much disagreement, I even mean this from a Christian perspective. What is ‘premarital sex’? On simple terms, it would seem that this is ‘sex before marriage’… but that implies that the exact point in time when the marriage starts is known, right? So when does that happen? Is it is as soon as the ink is dry on a marriage certificate? That reduces marriage to being official based only on what a piece of paper says. Is it as soon as the wedding festivities are over? If this is against the ‘tenets of every religion’, what does the Bible say? Mar 10:8 and 9 says this…. “And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” And in 1 Corinthians 6:16, you will find this thought provoking statement…. “What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.” Scripture does not tie the point in time when marriage starts to the wedding… it ties it to the point in time when the couple has sex for the first time. In other words, ‘premarital sex’ is an oxymoron….as soon as sex happens, the couple is married. That should give everyone pause for thought as they contemplate the number of wives and husbands they have that they never considered before….
Great. Let’s obfuscate and give what has already become all too common - and immoral, as the judge said - complete legitimacy. Rationalize screwing around.
Notice how our republic has gone downhill in perfect timing with sexual morality going downhill (about equivalent to “The Pill”). But no one, not even “conservatives”, wants to acknowledge that. They decided it’s too much fun for them.
If it helps, “extramarital” is the term to use. All sex outside a marriage is immoral, period, and is so for a reason.