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The 1 minute refutation of Atheism: There is no such thing. The premise of Atheism assumes a universal negative about God's existence, which makes it logically inconsistent:

1. Atheists say, like fools, "there is no God."
2. In order to make this statement, one must be Omniscient (all knowing) to know whether God exists in all the universe.
3. If one is Omniscient, they are God.
4. So there is a God, it's the alleged Atheist.

The same is not logically inconsistent concerning believers. We say, "there is a God, and we know Him personally." If we know Him, we can logically say He exists. A universal positive does not suffer from the same syllogistic flaw.

We say, "there is a God, and we know Him personally." If we know Him, we can logically say He exists.

Hi Greek. This is kind of tangential to your post, but I hope you (and anyone else who's interested) won't mind indulging me in the following (it's been a few years since I've looked at philosophy, so I'm not going to do the syllogism thing):

To positively affirm that the God of the Bible exists because you know Him, does this not imply one of the following :

(a) The God that you know is finite, as opposed to the omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient God of the Bible. In fact, His limits coincide exactly with yours or are circumscribed by your limits.

(b) You are omniscient, if not also omnipotent and omnipresent along with God?

If you do not possess omniscience yourself, then how can you affirm that the God that you know is the same God, limitless in His knowledge, power and presence, to Whom you devote your Worship? If you are going to "logically say" that you know Him, must you not also admit the caveat that the entity which you know could possibly be a lesser entity than the almighty God of the Bible? To truly know that something is without limits, the knower must be without limits himself, or he must admit that the "knowee" could possibly have limits at some point beyond his (the knowers) own limits.