[jpsb]

Regarding the North and the South, there were no tariffs between them. The North enveloped the South economically. Why is that? Come on guy. How’d it happen? Don’t change the subject. How’d the North manage to survive wage inequality and blow the South away economical and militarily?

I tire of having to constantly repeat myself for your benefit, one more time and this is the last time so pay attention.

I have already explained that to you, but you refuse to listen, one more time, the northern workers DID NOT COMPETE with the slave labor of the south. The north had a moral objection to slaves and slave labor so the north refused to use it. And prospered BECAUSE they used high cost labor to produce high costs goods behind a wall of revenue tariffs that protected their economic system. Got it now?

[elfman2]

"the northern workers DID NOT COMPETE with the slave labor of the south. The north had a moral objection to slaves and slave labor so the north refused to use it. "

Snicker… And now the US refuses to use $1an hour labor in our territory (because no one will work for that), yet the North prospered and so will we. You’ve yet to explain how the free North enveloped the South. That’s because you can’t explain it without destroying your premise that wage inequality needs to be managed by tariffs. You are a coward.