Posted on 03/10/2004 5:56:40 AM PST by cvq3842
Some people say they oppose a constitutional amendment defining marriage as it has been traditionally understood on the grounds that amendments should expand rights, not limit them. But some state constitutions have provisions prohibiting poligamy also. Should these "restrictions" be removed as well? If future state court decisions make a constitutional amendment banning poligamy necessary, would it be opposed on the same grounds? But the real, underlying question, IMHO, is the balance of powers between the legislature and the judiciary.
Just some thoughts.
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