"The study reveals that one-third the participants are infected with the disease. But half of the African American study participants are HIV positive."
Does this mean that 33% of gay men in baltimore have AIDS, or was the study done only of a specific group that already suspected they had the disease.
"Does this mean that 33% of gay men in baltimore have AIDS, or was the study done only of a specific group that already suspected they had the disease."
Doesn't say whether this was set up to be a statistically valid sampling of the entire population, so I'd say that this is probably not indicative of the population as a whole. From the sound of it, the participants self-selected based upon their participation in high-risk sexual behavior. Assuming this is correct, and depending upon the ratio of participants, the actual rate of infection for gay men in the study who are not black, and engage in high-risk sexual activity, will be lower than 33%. The 50% rate of infection for black men should frighten any sane person away from risky sexual behavior, but apparently it has not, so at some point in the not to distant future, Baltimore is going to have far fewer gay black men, and they will have done it to themselves.
It wasn't clear. I think 33 percent was of the entire group and the black group was higher. Actually shocking stats if you ask me.