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To: nopardons

Since the advent of the sexual revolution, has the number one definition of "virgin" changed from being exclusively female to a person of either sex in current editions of the most respected dictionaries?

What is the answer, please. Is it that complicated?

If you don't know, it's OK to say so.


595 posted on 09/20/2005 11:26:35 PM PDT by Age of Reason
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To: Age of Reason
There are seventeen,SEVETEEN definitions of the word "virgin" in my 1960 WEBSTER'S ENCYCLOPEDIC UNABRIDGED DICTIONAEY OF THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE.

There are twenty,TWENTY definitions of the word "virgin" in the 1989 edition of the same dictionary.

Where a definition is listed, is not all that significant; except that in the dictionaries I own and have named, absolutely NOTHING whatsoever has changed, regarding the placement of males virginity, POST the sexual revolution.

Yes, I realize that it offends your twee ( which is a real word and not a misspelling, BTW ) sensibilities, that your virginal state might be interpreted as "feminine", but that's too bad. There are VIGIN forests and oil and stock offerings and snow and and gold and soil and olive oil and all kinds of other things that are genderless.

And OTOH, there really ARE and have been, girls and women who are hymenless,through horseback riding and other nonsexual, non-contact with a male member nor implement of any kind, who are considered to no longer be virgins.

Besides being a masochist, you also appear to be an obsessive. Bad poddy training, pet? Is that why you hate your mother and all girls and women?

597 posted on 09/20/2005 11:52:28 PM PDT by nopardons
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