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To: bkepley
And then there's Aristotle. How many years did people depend on his laws?

The key here is that Aristotle, as brilliant as he was, had no conception of empirical science as practiced since the late 15th century or so in the West. His results were arrived at by some observation, yes, but his theoretical conceptions were spun out of his reason and were not subject to empirical test.

So I'll point out that in my previous reply to you I wrote: "Well-established laws in science..."

17 posted on 09/19/2005 3:58:07 AM PDT by snarks_when_bored
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To: snarks_when_bored

"Well-established laws in science..."

What bugs me is the complete ignorance scientists have of what history does to popular thinking. It could be that the science we are doing today will be fully accepted two thousand years from now (if we last that long), but it's also possible (in my opinion) that the science of today will seem to be amusingly prejudiced and conceited.


25 posted on 09/19/2005 4:05:59 AM PDT by bkepley
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