or the other way around :)
My point being that Spielberg accurately portrays the holocaust as horror in Schindler's list, yet now he portrays a group with similar goals to the Nazis as being victims. His justification is the displacement of the Palestinian people by Israel. Didn't the Nazis use similar justifications to rationalize the extermination of the Jews? The only difference being that the Nazis had the full means to carry out their plans while the Palestinians can only do so on a smaller scale. . .well, until Iran gives them the nukes to truly accomplish their goals.