I would bother but I've already gone through this. See the links I have provided. It is very clear the intent of the 14th Amendment was not meant to incorporate the Bill of Rights. As late as 1925 the Supreme Court ruled exactly that on the First Amendment. The Fifth was not incorporated until 1897. Do a quick search on 14th and incorporation theory.
I would bother but I've already gone through this.
Not really. What do you gain by allowing a State to infringe on your RKBA's? -- It's a simple question.
See the links I have provided. It is very clear the intent of the 14th Amendment was not meant to incorporate the Bill of Rights.
I've seen all those links before.
None of them make that point, as the framers of the 14th made their intent clear in the 1868 debates before ratification. They wanted ex-slaves to have the RKBA's.
As late as 1925 the Supreme Court ruled exactly that on the First Amendment. The Fifth was not incorporated until 1897. Do a quick search on 14th and incorporation theory.
'Incorporation' is as you said, a theory. Where in our Constitution is the USSC given the power to decide if an Amendment applies to State & local governments?
Clearly, Article VI applies all of the the US Constitution to States, "- any thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary, notwithstanding. --"